Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Valid Test Review | MCCQE Valid Test Registration

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Dimensions of Care- Chronic Care
  • 1. Rehabilitation
  • 2. Long-term care
  • 3. Chronic disease management
- Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
  • 1. Disease prevention measures
  • 2. Screening and periodic health exams
  • 3. Risk factor reduction
  • 4. Patient education
  • 5. Health maintenance
- Acute Care
  • 1. Management of acute medical conditions
  • 2. Emergency and critical care
  • 3. Acute presentations and stabilization
- Psychosocial Aspects
  • 1. Patient communication
  • 2. Psychosocial determinants of health
  • 3. Mental health and behavioral sciences
Physician Activities- Professionalism
  • 1. Physician health for sustainable practice
  • 2. Ethics and legal duties
  • 3. Leadership and scholarly habits
  • 4. Lifelong learning
  • 5. Self-awareness and reflection
- Management
  • 1. Follow-up planning
  • 2. Pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatment
  • 3. Therapeutic interventions
- Assessment
  • 1. Physical examination
  • 2. History taking
  • 3. Investigations and diagnostic reasoning
- Communication
  • 1. Physician-patient communication
  • 2. Team communication
  • 3. Breaking bad news
  • 4. Informed consent

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q287-Q292):

NEW QUESTION # 287
A 4-year-old boy is brought by his parents to your walk-in clinic with a 3-week history of fatigue, bruising, and intermittent fever. He was previously healthy. Physical examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly and petechiae. His complete blood count shows the following:
Platelet count, blood: 15.0 × 10#/L (206.4-443.3)
White blood cell (WBC) count, blood: 1.0 × 10#/L (4.7-13.5)
Hemoglobin (Hgb), blood: 70 g/L (105-135)
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: D

Explanation:
This child has pancytopenia (severe thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and anemia) plus systemic symptoms (fatigue, intermittent fever) and hepatosplenomegaly, strongly suggesting bone marrow failure/infiltration, most commonly acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) in this age group. MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing red flags for childhood malignancy: unexplained bruising/petechiae from thrombocytopenia, recurrent or persistent fever, pallor, and organomegaly due to leukemic infiltration or extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Immune thrombocytopenia typically causes isolated thrombocytopenia with otherwise normal hemoglobin and WBC count and usually no hepatosplenomegaly. Iron deficiency anemia causes microcytic anemia but does not explain profound thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Viral illness may transiently suppress counts but is less likely to cause marked pancytopenia with significant organomegaly. Bacterial sepsis can cause thrombocytopenia but usually presents with acute toxicity and does not typically produce this pattern of sustained pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly.
Next steps (clinically) would include urgent peripheral smear, oncology referral, and bone marrow evaluation.


NEW QUESTION # 288
A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 2-month history of persistent erectile dysfunction. He reports having difficulties maintaining an erection. His last hemoglobin A1c level result was 6.4% (4.8-6.0). He had a negative result on his cardiac stress test 1 month ago. He has been taking stable dosages of citalopram, metformin, and ramipril for the past 2 years. His physical examination findings are normal, and his mood appears euthymic. Which one of the following investigations should be ordered before initiating treatment with sildenafil?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Erectile dysfunction (ED) in older men is commonly vascular, medication-related, or associated with diabetes.
This patient has well-controlled diabetes (HbA1c 6.4%) and a recent negative cardiac stress test , suggesting he is at low cardiovascular risk for sexual activity. MCCQE objectives emphasize cardiovascular risk stratification prior to prescribing phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors. Patients who are stable and cleared for moderate physical exertion (e.g., recent negative stress test) do not require additional cardiac testing before initiating sildenafil.
There is no indication for routine CBC, urine culture, PSA, or echocardiography in the absence of relevant symptoms or findings. PSA screening is unrelated to ED management and should follow age-appropriate shared decision-making guidelines. Echocardiography is unnecessary without cardiac symptoms or abnormal exam.
The key contraindication to sildenafil is concurrent nitrate therapy or unstable cardiovascular disease, neither of which is present. Therefore, no additional investigations are required before initiating treatment.
Counseling should include discussion of medication interactions, side effects (e.g., headache, flushing), and avoidance with nitrates.


NEW QUESTION # 289
A 43-year-old man is referred to you for an incidental finding of elevated hemoglobin. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin
185 g/L (130-170)
Mean corpuscular volume
92 fL (60-100)
White blood cells
7.8×1037.8×103 / L (4-10)
Platelets
250×103250×103 / L (130-400)
His BMI is 23. He has type 2 diabetes for which he takes gliclazide MR 60 mg daily. Which one of the following features on history could explain his laboratory abnormality?

Answer: E

Explanation:
Elevated hemoglobin in the absence of polycythemia vera can be due to secondary causes such as chronic hypoxia. Central sleep apnea, often associated with diabetes or neurologic conditions, leads to intermittent hypoxia and compensatory erythropoiesis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology and Respiratory Medicine, "Polycythemia" Section:
"Secondary erythrocytosis may result from hypoxic conditions including sleep apnea, COPD, or high altitude.
Assess for sleep-disordered breathing in patients with elevated hemoglobin and no myeloproliferative features." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Abnormalities):
"Candidates must investigate secondary causes of elevated hemoglobin, including hypoxia-related conditions." Hypertension (A), hypothyroidism (C), and cirrhosis (D) do not cause polycythemia. Alcohol (B) typically causes macrocytosis and anemia.


NEW QUESTION # 290
A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has no significant medical history. He is anxious and agitated, and he reports severe central chest pain that began about 90 minutes ago.
His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 200/110 mm Hg, heart rate 140/min, respiratory rate 30/min, oxygen saturation 98% on supplemental oxygen. Physical examination reveals a restless and slightly tremulous man. Pupils are 7 mm reactive. There are no focal neurologic signs. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The 12-lead electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia; findings are otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?

Answer: D

Explanation:
This presentation most strongly suggests cocaine intoxication . MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing toxidromes and life-threatening causes of chest pain. Cocaine is a potent sympathomimetic that increases catecholamines and causes marked hypertension, tachycardia, agitation/anxiety, tremor, tachypnea, and mydriasis , and it can precipitate severe chest pain via coronary vasospasm, increased myocardial oxygen demand, platelet activation, and potential aortic dissection. An ECG may show only sinus tachycardia early despite significant ischemic risk. In contrast, opioids (heroin, oxycodone) typically cause CNS depression, miosis , and respiratory depression. Alcohol intoxication does not usually cause extreme hypertension, mydriasis, and severe sympathomimetic agitation. Cannabis may cause anxiety and tachycardia but is less likely to produce this degree of hypertension and classic stimulant features. Therefore, cocaine best explains the combination of acute severe chest pain with a prominent sympathetic toxidrome. Immediate priorities include cardiac evaluation and treating stimulant toxicity (e.g., benzodiazepines and blood pressure control while avoiding isolated beta-blockade).


NEW QUESTION # 291
An 8-year-old girl is brought by her father to the office with a 2-week history of red, itchy, and watery eyes.
She is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is no discharge or difficulty with vision. Pupil examination findings are normal. The patient's eyes are shown in the referenced photo. Which one of the following topical therapies is the best recommendation?

Answer: E

Explanation:
This child presents with bilateral red, itchy, watery eyes for 2 weeks without purulent discharge, pain, or visual changes-classic features of allergic conjunctivitis . MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing allergic conjunctivitis from infectious causes. Allergic conjunctivitis is characterized by pruritus (key symptom), tearing, conjunctival injection, and often a history of atopy or seasonal triggers. Vision remains normal, and there is no mucopurulent discharge (which would suggest bacterial infection) or vesicular lesions
/dendritic ulcers (suggesting viral/herpetic causes).
Topical antihistamines (often combined with mast cell stabilizers) are first-line therapy and effectively reduce itching and redness by blocking histamine-mediated inflammation.
Topical antibiotics are unnecessary without bacterial features. Antivirals are reserved for suspected herpetic disease. Antifungals are rarely indicated in routine conjunctivitis. Topical glucocorticoids are not first-line and may cause adverse effects (e.g., increased intraocular pressure) and should only be used under ophthalmologic supervision.
Therefore, a topical antihistamine is the most appropriate initial treatment.


NEW QUESTION # 292
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