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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Topic 1: Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Investigation
- 1. Digital evidence and forensic considerations
- 2. Post-incident activities and lessons learned
- Incident Response Processes
- 1. Incident response tools and techniques
- 2. Incident detection, containment, eradication, and recovery
|
| Topic 2: Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Response
- 1. Security controls and mitigation
- 2. Risk prioritization and remediation
- Vulnerability Assessment
- 1. Scanning methods and vulnerability identification
- 2. Vulnerability analysis and validation
|
| Topic 3: Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Communication
- 1. Technical and executive-level communication
- 2. Stakeholder communication and escalation
- Reporting
- 1. Metrics, trends, and recommendations
- 2. Vulnerability and incident reports
|
| Topic 4: Security Operations | 34% | - Security Operations and Architecture
- 1. Logging, monitoring, and network architecture
- 2. Indicators of malicious activity and analysis
- Threat Intelligence and Hunting
- 1. Threat intelligence concepts and sources
- 2. Threat hunting, detection, and response tools
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q16-Q21):
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following is the best option for an IT administrator to deploy to ensure standardized permissions to a cloud environment?
- A. SaaS log enrichment
- B. Threat feed correlation
- C. Zero Trust platform APIs
- D. Automated onboarding tasks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Automated onboarding tasks help ensure that users are consistently assigned the correct roles, groups, and permissions when they are provisioned in a cloud environment. This standardization reduces configuration errors, enforces access policies, and supports role-based access control across cloud resources.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A security team reviews a penetration testing report of a web application that contains multiple cross-site scripting (XSS) and Structured Query Language injection (SQLi) vulnerabilities.
Which of the following is most likely causing these to occur?
- A. Lack of secure input validation
- B. Misconfigured web application firewall (WAF)
- C. Lack of endpoint protection in the environment
- D. Lack of a Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Strict Transport Security (HSTS) header
Answer: A
Explanation:
The common underlying weakness is insufficient handling and validation of untrusted application input .
XSS occurs when attacker-controlled content is processed and subsequently rendered in a manner that allows script execution. SQL injection occurs when untrusted values become part of database commands without appropriate separation between code and data.
OWASP recommends validating untrusted input early in the processing workflow and applying syntactic and semantic validation. For SQL injection specifically, OWASP identifies parameterized queries as the primary defensive technique and recommends allow-list input validation as an additional defensive layer. For XSS, context-appropriate output encoding and sanitization must also be applied; therefore input validation should be viewed as part of secure application handling rather than the sole technical control.
A WAF can provide defense in depth but does not correct vulnerable application code. HSTS forces browsers to use HTTPS and protects transport security; it does not prevent malicious input from being interpreted by an application. Endpoint protection similarly operates on hosts and does not repair web application data-handling flaws.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Application Vulnerabilities # XSS # SQL Injection # Input Validation # Output Encoding # Parameterized Queries # Secure Coding.
NEW QUESTION # 18
An incident response team identifies a malicious uniform resource locator (URL) associated with a required business process and performs the following activities:
- Access to the URL has been restricted only to the necessary users
through firewall rules and Cloud Security Group rules.
- Additional monitoring has been enabled for traffic related to that
site and the allowed users.
- All application servers that need to access that site have been
patched with the latest security and software updates.
- Application owners have been notified of the severity and need to
remediate this reported issue.
Which of the following best describes the overall mitigation the security team is performing?
- A. Compensating controls
- B. Patching solutions
- C. Configuration management
- D. Attack surface management
Answer: A
Explanation:
The malicious URL cannot be completely blocked because it supports a required business process, so the team is applying alternative safeguards-restricted access, monitoring, patching, and notifications-to reduce the risk.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following allows an organization to leverage AI in various forms while protecting business objectives and data?
- A. Incident response policy
- B. Prompt engineering
- C. Usage policies
- D. Non-disclosure agreement
Answer: C
Explanation:
AI usage policies define approved tools, permitted data, acceptable use, and security requirements, enabling AI adoption while protecting organizational information and objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A security operations (SOC) manager develops response mechanisms as part of playbook development efforts. The SOC manager needs to accomplish the following:
- Document adversarial activities.
- Map adversarial activities to a linear progression of sequential phases.
- Provide broad coverage of threat actions without addressing specific
tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs).
Which of the following is the most reliable source for this information?
- A. Cyber Kill Chain
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- D. Cyber COBRA
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain documents adversarial activities as a linear sequence of phases, providing a high-level view of threat progression without focusing on detailed tactics, techniques, or procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 21
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