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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Risk Adjustment Models and Documentation Impact | 25% | - Hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting - RADV audit concepts and documentation compliance - CMS-HCC model fundamentals and RAF scoring - Medicare Advantage payment structure and documentation requirements |
| CDI Program Concepts, Queries, and Quality | 20% | - Regulatory compliance: HIPAA, OIG work plan, confidentiality - Compliant query development: principles, structure, and non-leading language - Problem list maintenance, provider education, and program operations - CDI metrics: query rates, capture rates, quality scores, denial prevention |
| Clinical Conditions, Pathophysiology, and Chart Review | 20% | - Clinical indicators, diagnostic tests, medications, and documentation triggers - Differentiating acute vs chronic, active vs historical conditions - Disease processes across all body systems and documentation relevance |
| Healthcare Regulations, Reimbursement, and Documentation Requirements | 35% | - Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) and Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) - Provider coding and billing: CPT, Evaluation and Management (E/M), Medicare Physician Fee Schedule - Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting (OCG) for ICD-10-CM
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NEW QUESTION # 109
A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outpatient CDI follow-up must balance responsiveness with confidentiality and professional standards. The most compliant approach is to communicate query-related information in a setting that protects protected health information and minimizes the risk of incidental disclosure. Discussing the query in a private room with the door closed supports timely clarification while maintaining privacy, avoiding conversations that could be overheard by patients, visitors, or staff who are not involved in the patient's care. Catching the provider in the hallway is faster but increases privacy risk because clinical details can be overheard, and it may also distract the provider in a high-traffic environment. Leaving a sticky note on the next patient's chart is inappropriate because it can be seen by others, may be misplaced, and can create compliance and medico-legal concerns (including mixing patients or leaving PHI unsecured). Waiting for the next scheduled meeting may be compliant but does not support a quick response, potentially delaying coding completion and data integrity. Therefore, a private discussion is both the quickest and most compliant option.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: "CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI." Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under CMS-HCC methodology, risk adjustment is driven by ICD-10-CM diagnoses that map to HCC categories and are supported as active conditions addressed at the encounter. CKD stage 3 is a classic HCC-qualifying chronic condition because it represents ongoing kidney disease severity and expected resource use, and in this note it is actively assessed with labs reviewed and a nephrology referral. A chronic non-pressure foot ulcer is also typically HCC-qualifying when documented as ongoing and requiring management, which is supported here by home care/wound assessment planning. In contrast, "depression" (without specification such as major depressive disorder severity/status) commonly does not qualify for HCC in the way major depressive/bipolar categories do, making it less reliable as a risk-adjusting diagnosis. Likewise, "renal failure" is nonspecific and potentially conflicting with CKD stage 3; CDI best practice would be to clarify acuity/severity (acute kidney injury vs CKD stage vs ESRD) rather than assume "renal failure" as an HCC driver. Therefore, the validated HCC-qualifying pair is CKD 3 and chronic non-pressure ulcer.
NEW QUESTION # 111
The primary purpose of the RADV program is to
Answer: B
Explanation:
RADV (Risk Adjustment Data Validation) is a CMS audit program used in Medicare Advantage to confirm that diagnoses submitted for risk adjustment are supported by medical record documentation and meet reporting requirements. Its central aim is payment integrity-ensuring that risk-adjusted capitation payments to Medicare Advantage organizations are accurate based on valid, documented conditions. In outpatient CDI practice, RADV risk underscores why documentation must clearly support each reported diagnosis (e.g., condition evaluated/assessed/treated, clinically relevant, and properly documented by an eligible provider), because unsupported diagnoses can lead to payment recoupment and compliance exposure. RADV is not designed to assess medical necessity of the services provided (that is typically addressed through utilization review and other payer audits), nor is it focused on identifying overpayments to individual physicians (it targets plan-level risk adjustment payments). It also is separate from E/M leveling accuracy, which is governed by CPT/E/M guidelines and distinct audit processes. Therefore, the best definition of RADV's primary purpose is ensuring the integrity and accuracy of risk-adjusted payments.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?
Answer: D
Explanation:
To support a query for alcohol dependence in remission, outpatient CDI practice looks for indicators that reflect a documented history of dependence plus evidence the patient is actively maintaining sobriety or being followed for recovery status. Attendance at AA meetings together with a documented history of excessive alcohol use is a strong, direct indicator of recovery efforts and ongoing monitoring of a prior substance use disorder. This combination supports clarifying whether the provider intends to diagnose alcohol dependence in remission (versus current dependence, use without dependence, or no current disorder). By contrast, cirrhosis and elevated liver enzymes (option A) can be caused by many etiologies and do not, by themselves, establish dependence or remission status. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention (option D) are nonspecific and may suggest acute illness or liver disease but are not specific to remission. Occasional social drinking with recreational drug use (option C) suggests current substance use and would not support "in remission" without additional documentation. Therefore, option B best supports a remission-related query.
NEW QUESTION # 113
An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In MSSP-style ACO financial reconciliation, performance is evaluated against a benchmark (expected costs). Here, the ACO's actual spending ($52M) exceeds the expected benchmark ($50M) by $2M, meaning the ACO generated shared losses rather than savings. In risk-bearing ACO arrangements, when costs exceed the benchmark and the ACO is in a track that includes downside risk, the organization may owe CMS a portion of those losses. The shared savings/loss rate (50% in this scenario) represents the percentage of the difference from the benchmark that the ACO shares with CMS, assuming applicable thresholds are met. Thus, instead of receiving a shared savings payment, the ACO would be accountable to pay back a share of the excess spending (conceptually 50% of the $2M overage, if all model requirements are satisfied). Option D is not correct because reconciliation is typically performed on a performance-year basis rather than only at the end of the full agreement period, and option C is not how MSSP eligibility works.
NEW QUESTION # 114
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