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NEW QUESTION # 525
Recent repents indicate that a software tool is being exploited Attackers were able to bypass user access controls and load a database. A security analyst needs to find the vulnerability and recommend a mitigation.
The analyst generates the following output:
Which of the following would the analyst most likely recommend?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The output indicates that the software tool contains hard-coded credentials, which attackers can exploit to bypass user access controls and load the database. The most likely recommendation is to remove hard-coded credentials from the source code. Here's why:
* Security Best Practices: Hard-coded credentials are a significant security risk because they can be easily discovered through reverse engineering or simple inspection of the code. Removing them reduces the risk of unauthorized access.
* Credential Management: Credentials should be managed securely using environment variables, secure vaults, or configuration management tools that provide encryption and access controls.
* Mitigation of Exploits: By eliminating hard-coded credentials, the organization can prevent attackers from easily bypassing authentication mechanisms and gaining unauthorized access to sensitive systems.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* OWASP Top Ten: Insecure Design
* NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
NEW QUESTION # 526
A security analystreviews the following report:
Which of the following assessments is the analyst performing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The table shows detailed information about products, includinglocation, chassis manufacturer, OS, application developer, and vendor. This type of information is typically assessed in a supply chain assessment to evaluate the security and reliability of components and services from different suppliers.
Why Supply Chain Assessment?
Component Evaluation: Assessing the origin and security of each component used in the products, including hardware, software, and third-party services.
Vendor Reliability: Evaluating the security practices and reliability of vendors involved in providing components or services.
Risk Management: Identifying potential risks associated with the supply chain, such as vulnerabilities in third- party components or insecure development practices.
Other types of assessments do not align with the detailed supplier and component information provided:
A). System: Focuses on individual system security, not the broader supply chain.
C). Quantitative: Focuses on numerical risk assessments, not supplier information.
D). Organizational: Focuses on internal organizational practices, not external suppliers.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-161, " Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal Information Systems and Organizations "
" Supply Chain Security Best Practices, " Gartner Research
NEW QUESTION # 527
After an incident response exercise, a security administrator reviews the following table:
Which of the following should the administrator do to best support rapid incident response in the future?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enabling dashboards for service status monitoring is the best action to support rapid incident response. Dashboards provide real-time visibility into the status of critical systems, enabling quicker identification of issues and a more informed, proactive response during an incident. By having a centralized view of service status, the security administrator can respond more quickly and efficiently to any disruptions.
NEW QUESTION # 528
A company recently migrated its critical web application to a cloud provider's environment. As part of the company's risk management program, the company intends to conduct an external penetration test. According to the scope of work and the rules of engagement, the penetration tester will validate the web application's security and check for opportunities to expose sensitive company information in the newly migrated cloud environment. Which of the following should be the first consideration prior to engaging in the test?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Most cloud providers require explicit authorization before any penetration testing is performed against their infrastructure. Even though the application is yours, the underlying network, hypervisor, and shared services belong to the CSP. Securing written approval (or verifying that the provider's policy allows the planned tests without advance notice) ensures you won't violate the provider's terms of service or trigger automated abuse defenses that could disrupt service.
NEW QUESTION # 529
A security analyst is investigating a possible insider threat incident that involves the use of an unauthorized USB from a shared account to exfiltrate data. The event did not create an alert. The analyst has confirmed the USB hardware ID is not on the device allow list, but has not yet confirmed the owner of the USB device. Which of the following actions should the analyst take next?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A false negative occurs when a threat or security event happens but fails to trigger an alert, leading to undetected malicious activity. In this case, the security analyst has confirmed that an unauthorized USB device was used, which violates policy. However, since the event did not generate an alert despite being an unauthorized action, it indicates a failure in the detection system to identify the threat.
NEW QUESTION # 530
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