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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Asset Management | - Explain OT standards and Fortinet compliance - Use Fortinet Security Fabric for an OT network - Implement device detection on FortiGate and FortiNAC |
| Topic 2: Monitoring and Risk Assessment | - Analyze security reports from FortiAnalyzer - Perform risk assessment and management - Create FortiAnalyzer event handlers |
| Topic 3: Network Security | - Configure virtual patching - Configure automation - Configure security inspections for industrial protocols |
| Topic 4: Network Access Control | - Explain OT Ethernet concepts - Configure network segmentation schemas - Configure network access authentication |
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NEW QUESTION # 19
Refer to the exhibits.

A partial Incident Analysis page and the log details related to the event are shown. An attack is reported on your OT network. You analyze the corresponding incident. Based on the information provided on the Incident Analysis page and the log details, which two statements are correct? (Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Based on the technical data provided in the exhibits and the OT Security 7.6 Architect curriculum:
* Industrial Protocol Identification (Statement A) : The log details exhibit clearly shows that the Destination Port used in the attack is 502 . According to the study guide ' s section on Industrial Protocol Protection , the standard port used by the Modbus TCP protocol is 502 . Furthermore, the attack name identifies a " Triangle.Research.Nano-10.PLC, " which are industrial controllers commonly utilizing Modbus for communications.
* Attack Mitigation (Statement B) : The log details specify that the Action taken by the FortiGate (Edge-FortiGate) was dropped . In cybersecurity and Fortinet fabric operations, dropping a packet associated with an IPS signature means the traffic was blocked from reaching its target, thereby mitigating the attack.
* Target IP Address (Statement E) : The log detail explicitly lists the Destination IP as 192.168.2.3 .
The Incident Analysis page also titles the incident with dstip:192.168.2.3. While the " Affected Endpoint " is shown as 10.1.5.20 , in an " outgoing " attack direction (as shown in the log), this likely refers to the internal source/attacker IP, whereas the target is the destination IP (192.168.2.3). Thus, Statement E is incorrect.
* Protocol Conflict (Statement C) : The IEC 104 protocol typically utilizes port 2404 . Since the log specifies port 502, Statement C is incorrect.
* Severity Distinction (Statement D) : While the Incident severity is marked as High , the question specifically asks about event severity. The " Events " table at the bottom of the Incident Analysis page shows a " User login/logout failed " event with a medium severity. Because there is a distinction in the management console between the severity of individual events and the aggregated incident, and Statement A and B are technically definitive based on port and action, A and B are the correct architectural choices.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Refer to the exhibit.
A firewall policy page is shown. To improve the security of your OT network, you have configured a Supervisor profile in the firewall policies, as shown in the exhibit. However, a supervisor is reporting that he cannot ping PLC-1. What are the two reasons? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
Option A is correct because the study guide explains that with active authentication , FortiGate prompts the user only when they use "an acceptable login protocol." It states: "When you use only active authentication, if all possible policies that could match the source IP address have authentication enabled, then the user will receive a login prompt (assuming they use an acceptable login protocol)." A direct ping to PLC-1 uses ICMP , which is not the kind of login protocol used to trigger user authentication.
So the supervisor must first authenticate through a protocol such as HTTPS or Telnet , then the ICMP traffic can match the authenticated policy.
Option C is also correct because the exhibit shows policy ID 8 greyed out, meaning it is not enabled. That policy appears above the Supervisor_access (9) policy and allows broader access to PLC-1 , whereas policy 9 is limited to ALL_ICMP . The study guide explains that "Because the user has not yet authenticated, the user group aspect of the traffic does not match" and FortiGate continues searching for another complete match. In this case, with policy 8 disabled, the supervisor is left with only the ICMP rule, which cannot be used to perform the initial login step needed for active authentication.
Option B is not supported by the exhibit. Option D is incorrect because auth-on-demand always would force authentication prompts more aggressively, but the core problem here is that the user is trying to start with ICMP and the broader policy that could permit the initial authenticated access is disabled.
NEW QUESTION # 21
For the installation of your first FortiGate device, you want to minimize the impact in your OT network.
Therefore, you deploy it initially as an offline IDS. Which two statements about this deployment are correct?
(Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Deploying a FortiGate in offline IDS (also known as one-arm sniffer mode) is a common strategy in OT environments for several reasons found in the study guide:
* Priority of Availability : In OT, availability and safety are critically important and prioritized higher than in IT. An offline IDS minimizes impact because it does not sit in the direct path of production traffic.
* Network Sensor Role : In this mode, the FortiGate is connected to a mirror/SPAN port on a switch. It acts as a network sensor , receiving a copy of the traffic rather than having the traffic flow through it.
This confirms Statement A is correct and Statement D is incorrect.
* Passive vs. Active : The guide explicitly states that in OT environments, passive methods are preferred over active methods to avoid negatively impacting performance or causing process interruptions.
* Depth of Visibility : Even though the device is offline, you apply security profiles (such as IPS, Application Control, and Antivirus) to the sniffer interface. This allows the FortiGate to analyze the copied traffic and provide deep visibility into the OT assets and their behaviors. This confirms Statement B is correct.
* Detection vs. Prevention : An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is passive ; it can detect threats but cannot reset connections or drop packets to block attacks. Therefore, it cannot block zero-day attacks, making Statement C incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Refer to the exhibit.
A partial OT network is shown. You have encountered many disconnections in the links and want to improve the availability of this network. Which action can you perform? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. You can implement parallel redundancy protocol . The study guide explains that media redundancy involves creating a backup path that can be used when part of the network fails and specifically states that "Parallel Redundancy Protocol (PRP) can be used for a star topology." Since the problem described is many disconnections in the links , the issue is link availability, which is a media redundancy problem rather than a firewall virtualization or policy separation problem. PRP is designed to provide a backup communication path with low recovery time when links fail.
The other options do not fit this scenario as well. HA clusters are described in the guide as a solution for network node redundancy , where a backup firewall or switch takes over when the primary device fails. SD- WAN is recommended for remote site access across multiple WAN links, not for the local floor links shown in this topology. VDOMs provide logical segmentation, not link redundancy or higher link availability.
Because the question is specifically about repeated link disconnections , the best action is to implement PRP .
NEW QUESTION # 23
Refer to the exhibits.
The Playbook Monitor dashboard and the analysis of the corresponding incident analysis are shown. You created the playbook with the objective of automatically attaching the report to the incident that was created.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
Option D is correct because the Playbook Monitor clearly shows the starter as On_Demand and the trigger as user(admin) . The study guide states that "ON_DEMAND: The playbook runs when an administrator manually starts it" and also notes that to run it manually, you select the playbook and click Run . This exactly matches the exhibit, so the playbook was manually triggered.
Option C is also correct. The study guide explains that "tasks run one after another" and that "if needed, the output of one task can be used by the tasks that follow it." It also gives an example where workflow logic matters, such as creating an incident and then attaching details to it. In the exhibit, the sequence shown is Attach_report , then Run_report , then Create_Incident , while the incident analysis shows no report attached . Since the report must exist and the incident must already be available before it can be attached properly, the task order is wrong and must be reordered.
Option B is incorrect because the monitor shows multiple tasks completed successfully, not only Create_Incident . Option A is not the best answer because the main problem demonstrated by the exhibits is not simply waiting time, but the incorrect workflow order. The playbook completed successfully, yet the report is still not attached, which indicates a design issue in the task sequence rather than just a delay.
NEW QUESTION # 24
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