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FINRA SIE Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Employee Conduct and Reportable Events: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Compliance Specialists and covers regulatory expectations regarding employee conduct and disclosure requirements. Candidates must be familiar with Form U4 and Form U5, as well as reporting obligations for outside business activities and political contributions.
Topic 2
  • Overview of the Regulatory Framework: This section of the exam measures the skills of Compliance Officers and evaluates knowledge of self-regulatory organization (SRO) requirements, including registration and continuing education for associated persons. Candidates must understand the distinction between registered and non-registered individuals and the requirements for maintaining industry qualifications.
Topic 3
  • Regulatory Entities, Agencies, and Market Participants: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Regulatory Analysts and covers the structure, authority, and jurisdiction of key regulatory bodies overseeing financial markets. The SEC's role in enforcing securities regulations is assessed, along with the authority of self-regulatory organizations such as FINRA and MSRB. Candidates must also understand the functions of other financial regulators, including the Department of the Treasury and state regulatory agencies. One key skill evaluated is identifying the jurisdictional scope of different financial regulators.
Topic 4
  • Understanding Products and Their Risks: This section of the exam measures the skills of Investment Analysts and examines different financial products and associated risks. Candidates must understand equity securities, including common stock, as well as debt instruments such as Treasury securities and mortgage-backed securities.
Topic 5
  • Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts, and Prohibited Activities: This section of the exam measures the skills of Securities Traders and focuses on different trading strategies, settlement processes, and corporate actions. Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of order types, including market, limit, stop, and good-til-canceled orders, as well as bid-ask spreads and discretionary versus non-discretionary trading.

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FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Sample Questions (Q335-Q340):

NEW QUESTION # 335
Which of the following types of investment companies typically have surrender fees?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Variable annuities typically include surrender charges (surrender fees), especially during the early years of the contract. A surrender charge is a fee assessed if the owner withdraws funds above permitted free-withdrawal amounts or terminates the contract during a specified surrender period. This feature is common because variable annuities are insurance products that often involve significant distribution costs, and insurers structure surrender schedules to recoup those costs if the investor exits early. On the SIE, variable annuities are treated as packaged products/variable contracts with unique fee structures, including surrender charges and separate account expenses.
By contrast, no-load mutual funds are designed specifically to have no sales charge (no front-end load and typically no deferred sales charge), though they may still have operating expenses in the expense ratio. UITs may involve sales charges at purchase, and they have a fixed portfolio that does not actively trade; they are not commonly characterized by surrender fees in the way variable annuities are. ETFs trade intraday on an exchange like stocks, and investors generally pay brokerage commissions and incur bid-ask spreads (and internal fund expenses), but ETFs do not impose surrender fees as an inherent product feature for secondary- market trades.
The concept being tested is recognition of product-specific fees. Variable annuities commonly include multiple layers of cost: mortality and expense (M&E) charges, administrative fees, underlying subaccount expenses, and surrender charges. Surrender charges are a key distinguishing characteristic and a frequent exam point because they affect liquidity and time horizon suitability.


NEW QUESTION # 336
A registered representative constructs a portfolio of stocks that replicates the S&P 500 Index (SPX). He then regularly buys and sells SPX options to profit off changes in implied volatility. This is an example of:

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 337
Which of the following investments is least likely to provide an investor with funds within one business day of liquidation?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A, A hedge fund. Liquidity refers to how quickly an investor can convert an investment into cash. Hedge funds are known for being highly illiquid investments compared to traditional securities.
They often impose lock-up periods, which restrict investors from withdrawing funds for a specified time (e.g., one year or more). Even after the lock-up period, withdrawals are typically only allowed at specific intervals (quarterly or annually), and advance notice is usually required.
In contrast, the other choices offer significantly greater liquidity. Money market funds are among the most liquid investments, often allowing same-day or next-day access to funds. Equity mutual funds redeem shares at the end of the trading day (NAV), with proceeds typically available within one business day. Municipal bonds, while traded in the secondary market, can generally be sold and settled quickly (usually T+1), providing relatively prompt access to funds.
Because hedge funds restrict redemptions and do not offer immediate liquidity, they are the least likely investment to provide funds within one business day. This makes them suitable only for investors who can tolerate limited access to their capital over extended periods.


NEW QUESTION # 338
For a joint tenants-in-common account with a husband and wife, which of the following statements is true of the broker-dealer's distribution of the account's assets upon the death of the husband?

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a joint tenants-in-common account, each owner has a divisible ownership interest. Upon the death of one tenant-in-common, that owner's portion does not automatically pass to the surviving co-owner. Instead, the deceased owner's share becomes part of the deceased owner's estate and is distributed according to the will or applicable estate law. Choice B is correct. Choice A would be true of a joint tenants with right of survivorship account, where the surviving joint owner receives the deceased owner's interest automatically. Choice C is not the best answer because the question identifies the account registration as tenants in common, and transfer- on-death instructions do not override the basic rule stated in the answer choice without additional facts.
Choice D is incorrect because the wife's ownership portion is already determined by the account registration; the deceased husband's portion goes to his estate. The SIE outline includes customer account registrations, including individual, joint, trust, custodial, partnership, corporate, and retirement accounts. This question tests the legal effect of the joint account registration. Reference: Section 3.2.2 Customer Account Registrations.


NEW QUESTION # 339
A customer has four traditional Individual retirement accounts (IRAs): two are at banks, one Is held directly at a mutual fund, and one Is held in her brokerage account. In order to meet her required minimum distribution (RMD), which of the following actions is she required to take?

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 340
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