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FINRA SIE Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Regulatory Entities, Agencies, and Market Participants: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Regulatory Analysts and covers the structure, authority, and jurisdiction of key regulatory bodies overseeing financial markets. The SEC's role in enforcing securities regulations is assessed, along with the authority of self-regulatory organizations such as FINRA and MSRB. Candidates must also understand the functions of other financial regulators, including the Department of the Treasury and state regulatory agencies. One key skill evaluated is identifying the jurisdictional scope of different financial regulators.
Topic 2	Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts, and Prohibited Activities: This section of the exam measures the skills of Securities Traders and focuses on different trading strategies, settlement processes, and corporate actions. Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of order types, including market, limit, stop, and good-til-canceled orders, as well as bid-ask spreads and discretionary versus non-discretionary trading.
Topic 3	Understanding Products and Their Risks: This section of the exam measures the skills of Investment Analysts and examines different financial products and associated risks. Candidates must understand equity securities, including common stock, as well as debt instruments such as Treasury securities and mortgage-backed securities.
Topic 4	Market Structure: This section of the exam measures the skills of Equity Market Specialists and covers the classification of financial markets, including the primary, secondary, third, and fourth markets. Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of electronic trading, over-the-counter (OTC) markets, and physical exchanges. One specific skill tested is differentiating between various market types and their operational mechanisms.
Topic 5	Overview of the Regulatory Framework: This section of the exam measures the skills of Compliance Officers and evaluates knowledge of self-regulatory organization (SRO) requirements, including registration and continuing education for associated persons. Candidates must understand the distinction between registered and non-registered individuals and the requirements for maintaining industry qualifications.

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FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Sample Questions (Q211-Q216):

NEW QUESTION # 211
Which of the following statements is true of an index exchange-traded fund (ETF)?

A. It is priced once daily, generally at the market close.
B. It trades at its intraday intrinsic value.
C. It is redeemable for cash directly to the issuer.
D. It is designed to track a specific asset class, style, sector, or country.

Answer: D

Explanation:
An index ETF is designed to track a specific index-which may represent an asset class, market segment, style, sector, or country-so D is correct. Index ETFs are typically passively managed to replicate the performance of a chosen benchmark (e.g., a broad equity index, a sector index, or an international index).
This product design feature is fundamental and widely tested on the SIE.
Choice C is incorrect because ETFs are not priced once daily like open-end mutual funds. ETFs trade on an exchange throughout the day and have intraday market prices. Choice B is incorrect because typical retail investors do not redeem ETF shares for cash directly with the issuer. The creation/redemption process is primarily for authorized participants, who transact in large blocks (creation units), usually exchanging baskets of securities. Retail investors buy and sell ETF shares in the secondary market through brokerage transactions.
Choice A is incorrect because while ETFs have an indicative intraday value (often called intraday NAV or iNAV), the ETF's market price can trade at small premiums or discounts based on supply/demand. It does not necessarily trade exactly at "intraday intrinsic value" at every moment, even though the arbitrage mechanism usually keeps deviations relatively small.
For SIE purposes, remember the core ETF distinctions: intraday trading, typically lower expense than many active mutual funds, an index-tracking objective for index ETFs, and a creation/redemption mechanism that supports price alignment with underlying value.

NEW QUESTION # 212
When is a newly registered person subject to the Continuing Education Regulatory Element requirement?

A. Every five years
B. The calendar year following initial registration
C. Every three years after the date of registration
D. On the anniversary date of initial registration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Regulatory Element Requirement: Newly registered persons must complete the Continuing Education (CE) Regulatory Element on the second anniversary of their initial registration and every three years thereafter.
* Incorrect Options:
* A: The requirement begins on the second anniversary, not the following calendar year.
* D: The cycle is every three years, not five.
FINRA Rule 1240 (Continuing Education): FINRA Rule 1240.

NEW QUESTION # 213
An investor holds 1,000 shares of a stock with a total cost basis of $5,000 in his account when a 1-for-5 reverse stock split is announced. What will be the investor's total cost basis after the payable date of the reverse split?

A. $25,000
B. $1,000
C. $2,500
D. $5,000

Answer: D

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Cost Basis in Reverse Split: The total cost basis remains unchanged in a reverse stock split. Only the number of shares and price per share adjust.
* Pre-Split: 1,000 shares at $5 each = $5,000.
* Post-Split: 200 shares at $25 each = $5,000.
* Incorrect Options:
* A, B, and D: Do not reflect the unchanged total cost basis.
References:
* IRS Guidance on Stock Splits: IRS Stock Split Info.

NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of the following statements is true of an index exchange-traded fund (ETF)?

A. It is priced once daily, generally at the market close.
B. It offers an opportunity to outperform the index it tracks.
C. It has a high portfolio turnover ratio.
D. Passive ETFs will typically have lower fees than those associated with actively managed ETFs.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Passive ETFs track an index and require minimal management, leading to lower expenses compared to actively managed ETFs.
* D is correct because passive ETFs are cost-efficient and have lower fees.
* A is incorrect because index ETFs have low turnover since they replicate an index.
* B is incorrect because ETFs are priced continuously throughout the trading day.
* C is incorrect as ETFs aim to match, not outperform, the index.
Reference: SIE Study Guide, Chapter 7: Exchange-Traded Funds

NEW QUESTION # 215
When are registered persons required to fulfill their Continuing Education (CE) Regulatory Element requirement?

A. Annually
B. After the initial three-year requirement and then every two years
C. Upon the receipt of a customer complaint
D. Semiannually

Answer: B

Explanation:
FINRA's Continuing Education (CE) requirements include the Regulatory Element, which must be completed:
* Within 120 days of the second anniversary of a registered representative's initialregistration.
* Every three years thereafter (changed to every two years as of 2023).
* C is correctbecause registered persons must complete the CE Regulatory Element after their initial requirement and then every two years.
* AandBare incorrect because CE is not required annually or semiannually.
* Dis incorrect because CE is not tied to customer complaints.

NEW QUESTION # 216
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