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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Communicator
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>> Test MCCQE Lab Questions <<
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NEW QUESTION # 75
A 62-year-old man (wealthy philanthropist) with emphysema from smoking and a 21-year-old woman (elementary teacher) with cystic fibrosis are both compatible matches for a lung transplant. Which criterion determines organ allocation?
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which one of the following bodies decides whether a physician is permitted to practise medicine in a province or territory?
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 77
A previously well 2-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with difficulty breathing that has been gradually worsening over the last 24 hours. Her parents say she has a sore throat. On examination, you note that she appears ill. She has stridor and is in moderate respiratory distress, drooling and emitting a muffled voice. Vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 34/min, heart rate 160/min, temperature 40.2°C.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Retropharyngeal abscess is most likely because the child is toxic-appearing with very high fever (40.2°C), sore throat, drooling, muffled "hot potato" voice, and stridor with progressively worsening respiratory distress over about 24 hours. In toddlers, retropharyngeal lymph nodes can become infected following an upper respiratory or pharyngeal infection and form an abscess, causing posterior pharyngeal swelling that obstructs the airway and makes swallowing painful, leading to drooling. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and hoarseness, usually with low-grade fever; drooling and muffled voice suggest a deeper space infection rather than viral laryngotracheitis. Foreign body aspiration usually has sudden onset and often lacks fever.
Laryngomalacia is a chronic infant condition (not acute, febrile illness). Bronchiolitis causes wheeze/crackles rather than prominent stridor and drooling. MCCQE priorities are airway-first management (minimize agitation, be prepared for a difficult airway), then prompt IV antibiotics and urgent ENT assessment for possible drainage.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A 22-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, comes to the office at 10 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. When you ask how she is doing, she becomes tearful and says she has had severe nausea and vomiting. She is not taking her prenatal vitamins regularly and feels very guilty about it. She is worried that she is harming the fetus. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's case?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Ginger is a first-line, evidence-based non-pharmacologic treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. It's well tolerated and effective. Addressing nausea will help her resume vitamin use and reduce distress.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy":
"Ginger 250 mg four times daily is safe and effective for mild to moderate nausea." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-1: Early Pregnancy Management):
"Candidates must treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy using safe and effective options." Folic acid alone (A) is less effective than a full prenatal vitamin. B may help, but nausea should be addressed first. C lacks empathy for her symptoms. D (cannabinoids) is not recommended in pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 79
While covering for a colleague away on holidays, you receive the following laboratory results for one of her patients, a 24-year-old woman:
White blood cell count: 10 × 10#/L (4-10)
Hemoglobin: 80 g/L (123-157)
Mean corpuscular volume: 76 fL (80-100)
Platelet count: 150 × 10#/L (130-400)
You have arranged a follow-up appointment for the patient with your colleague. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
These results show a significant anemia (Hb 80 g/L) with microcytosis (MCV 76 fL) and otherwise preserved cell lines (WBC at the upper end of normal; platelets normal). MCCQE objectives emphasize using CBC patterns to classify anemia and prioritize common causes. In a young woman, the most likely cause of microcytic anemia is iron deficiency , most often due to menstrual blood loss and/or inadequate iron intake, and it can be severe.
Leukemia and myelodysplasia typically present with abnormalities in multiple cell lines (e.g., leukocytosis with blasts or cytopenias) and are less consistent with an isolated microcytic anemia and normal platelets.
Anemia of chronic disease is usually normocytic or mildly microcytic and is less likely to produce such a low hemoglobin without an obvious chronic inflammatory condition. Thalassemia trait classically has marked microcytosis with relatively preserved hemoglobin (often only mild anemia) and is suggested by a lifelong history and family/ethnic background. The next clinical step (at follow-up) would be iron studies (ferritin first) and assessment for bleeding sources.
NEW QUESTION # 80
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