Authoritative AAPC - CPC - Latest Real Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Exam

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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC (American Academy of Professional Coders)
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Available Languages:English
Exam Price:$425 (1 attempt), $499 (2 attempts)
Real Exam Qty:100
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Related Certifications:CPMA
CRC
CPCO
CPC-P
Passing Score:70%
Exam Format:Multiple-choice, Scenario-based, Open-book
Recommended Training:AAPC CPC Training Courses
Exam Registration:AAPC Official Registration
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online proctored or in-person at authorized testing centers
Pre Condition:No mandatory prerequisites; recommended knowledge of medical terminology, anatomy, coding systems; AAPC membership required to register
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certifications/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 2
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 3
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 4
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 5
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 6
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 7
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 8
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 9
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 10
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 11
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 12
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 13
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 14
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 15
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 16
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 17
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 18
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 19
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
View MR 003396
MR 003396
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Acute MI, severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease Postoperative Diagnosis: Acute MI, severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease Procedure Performed: Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) right common femoral artery Description of Procedure: Patient's right groin was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. Right common femoral artery is found, and an incision is made over the artery exposing it. The artery is opened transversely, and the tip of the balloon catheter was placed in the right common femoral artery. The balloon pump had good waveform. The balloon pump catheter is secured to his skin after local anesthesia of 2 cc of 1% Xylocaine is used to numb the area. The balloon pump is secured with a 0-silk suture. The patient has sterile dressing placed. The patient tolerated the procedure. There were no complications.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The procedure involved the placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) through the right common femoral artery for a patient with acute MI and severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease.
Procedure Description:
Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP).
Right common femoral artery approach.
Confirmation of good waveform and securement of the catheter.
CPT Coding:
33975: Insertion of intra-aortic balloon assist device, percutaneous.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on cardiac procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 11
A patient underwent a colonoscopy, where the gastroenterologist biopsied two polyps from the colon. Each polyp was sent to pathology as separately identified specimens. The gastroenterologist was requesting a pathology consult while the patient was still on the table. Tissue blocks and frozen sections were then prepared and examined as follows:
Specimen 1: First Tissue Block-Three Frozen Sections Second Tissue Block-One Frozen Section Specimen 2: First Tissue Block-Two Frozen Sections Second Tissue Block-One Frozen Section What CPT coding is reported?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Frozen section pathology coding rules:
88331 - Frozen section, first tissue block, each specimen
88332 - Frozen section, each additional tissue block, same specimen
Breakdown:
Specimen 1
Block 1 → 88331 × 1
Block 2 → 88332 × 1
Specimen 2
Block 1 → 88331 × 1
Block 2 → 88332 × 1
However, multiple frozen sections per tissue block are separately reportable:
Total first blocks = 4 frozen sections → 88331 × 4
Total additional blocks = 3 frozen sections → 88332 × 3
CPT pathology guidelines require coding by tissue block and specimen, not by polyp alone.


NEW QUESTION # 12
View MR 006399
MR 006399
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Chronic otitis media in the right ear
Postoperative Diagnosis: Chronic otitis media in the right ear
Procedure: Eustachian tube inflation
Anesthesia: General
Blood Loss: Minimal
Findings: Serous mucoid fluid
Complications: None
Indications: The patient is a 2-year-old who presented to the office with chronic otitis media refractory to medical management. The treatment will be eustachian tube inflation to remove the fluid. Risks, benefits, and alternatives were reviewed with the family, which include general anesthetic, bleeding, infection, tympanic membrane perforation, routine tubes, and need for additional surgery. The family understood these risks and signed the appropriate consent form.
Procedure in Detail: After the patient was properly identified, he was brought into the operating room and placed supine. The patient was prepped and draped in the usual fashion. General anesthesia was administered via inhalation mask, and after adequate sedation was achieved, a medium-sized speculum was placed in the right ear and cerumen was removed atraumatically using instrument with operative microscope. The tube is dilated, an incision is made to the tympanum and thick mucoid fluid was suctioned. The patient was awakened after having tolerated the procedure well and taken to the recovery room in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The procedure involves eustachian tube inflation to remove serous mucoid fluid in the right ear of a 2-year-old patient with chronic otitis media.
* Procedure Description:
* Eustachian tube inflation to remove fluid.
* General anesthesia.
* Incision to the tympanum and suctioning of thick mucoid fluid.
* CPT Coding:
* 69421-RT: Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal or transoral; with catheterization, including general anesthesia. The modifier -RT indicates the right ear.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
* CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on eustachian tube procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 13
A 67-year-old male presents with DJD and spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 The patient is placed prone on the operating table and, after induction of general anesthesia, the lower back is sterilely prepped and draped. One incision was made over L1-L5. This was confirmed with a probe under fluoroscopy. Laminectomies are done at vertebral segments L4 and L5 with facetectomies to relieve pressure to the nerve roots. Allograft was packed in the gutters from L1-L5 for a posterior arthrodesis. Pedicle screws were placed at L2, L3, and L4.
The construct was copiously irrigated and muscle; fascia and skin were closed in layers.
Select the procedure codes for this scenario.

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Laminectomy and Facetectomy (63047 and 63048): The laminectomies at L4 and L5 with facetectomies fall under CPT codes 63047 (for the initial segment) and 63048 (for each additional segment).
* Posterior Arthrodesis (22612 and 22614 x 3): The posterior arthrodesis from L1-L5 is coded with
22612 for the primary segment (L4-L5) and 22614 for each additional segment (L1-L4).
* Placement of Pedicle Screws (22842): The placement of pedicle screws at L2, L3, and L4 is captured under CPT code 22842 for segmental instrumentation.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 14
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
27380 = Repair, quadriceps muscle
S76.311A = Strain of muscle, fascia, tendon of right thigh, initial encounter Code selection is based on specific muscle group and laterality


NEW QUESTION # 15
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