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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Laboratory Procedures | 12% | - Diagnostic Testing
|
| Topic 2: Pharmacy and Pharmacology | 12% | - Medication Preparation
|
| Topic 3: Surgical Nursing | 11% | - Perioperative Procedures
|
| Topic 4: Emergency Medicine and Critical Care | 8% | - Emergency Procedures
|
| Topic 5: Animal Care and Nursing | 20% | - Patient Care
|
| Topic 6: Pain Management and Analgesia | 7% | - Pain Control
|
| Topic 7: Anesthesia | 15% | - Anesthetic Procedures
|
| Topic 8: Dentistry | 8% | - Dental Procedures
|
| Topic 9: Diagnostic Imaging | 7% | - Imaging Techniques
|
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NEW QUESTION # 63
A horse handler brings in an 18-year-old gelding for evaluation. He reports that the horse has been showing intermittent yet progressive lameness. He is still eating and otherwise himself, but the trainer is concerned. You ask the handler if he has noticed any stumbling or a shortened stride, and he replies affirmatively. You recognize from your short interactions with the horse while getting your TPR and talking with the handler that the horse is intermittently shifting his weight off his heels on the right hind. You are suspicious of navicular disease in this horse.
Navicular disease describes a syndrome that can include all of the following, except:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Navicular disease syndrome has many underlying potential contributing factors and is likely multifactorial. Causes can include
*Damage to the navicular bone (distal sesamoid bone)
*Damage to the bone supply of the heel
*Damage to bursa, tendons, and ligaments attached to the navicular bone
*Underrun heels
*Low heel or long toe type confirmation (hoof wall angle is lower than that of the pastern) Contracted heels become a consequence of the disease over time. Contracted heels is a narrowing between the common meeting point of the fleshy part of the hoof wall, the heel, and the coronary band.
Regardless of the underlying cause(s), the net result is that the animal's weight shifts to take the pressure off the heel. This ultimately causes a gait change and may lead to secondary sequelae. The bone ultimately undergoes painful changes and degeneration over time. The disease syndrome is manageable but not curable.
Diagnosis can be a combination of various tests, including:
*Pain response with hoof testers over the foot's sole (pull the foot away)
*Flexion tests
*Nerve blocks
*Radiographs
*MRI
NEW QUESTION # 64
Quality assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC) combine with equipment calibration to ensure that test results remain reliable and diagnostic. Which of the following does not describe a QC practice?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Quality assurance (QA) involves minimizing errors in all stages of sample testing, from pre-analytic to analytic to post-analytic phases.
A quality control (QC) program helps detect problems before a test result is reported. Quality control (QC) refers to techniques that test the instrumentation, the ability of personnel to perform tests, and the actual diagnostic test kits. The goal of this testing is to maintain result reliability.
It is a technician's job to recognize when laboratory systems are malfunctioning and know what measures to take to correct the issue. Improper storage and handling of reagents or using expired reagents, for example, can affect quality control.
For maintaining proper QC, technicians need to:
*Always maintain detailed maintenance records of all equipment
*Ensure a standard operating procedure (SOP) for each piece of equipment used for laboratory testing
*Date any reagents, calibrators, and controls when reconstituted and first opened. Ensure they are appropriately stored according to the manufacturer's specifications.
*Discard items safely on the expiration dates. They are not sell-by-dates; they are actual expiration dates. Using them after that time could negatively affect test results.
Quality controls may be internal: those built into the diagnostic kits or machines; or they may be external: performed by veterinary personnel outside the unit or kit. These external controls are commercially prepared and test all stages of the procedure for that specific test. Examples include hematology control fluids for machines and urine control fluids for dipstick analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which instrument is most appropriate for subgingival scaling?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A curette is best suited for subgingival scaling because it has a rounded tip that is atraumatic to gingiva when appropriately used. A curette can be used either supra or subgingivally.
Scalers are also used to remove calculus from teeth, but are limited to supragingival use since they have a sharp tip that could damage subgingival tissues. Decalcifiers and deplaquers are both types of solutions, not scaling instruments.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A four-year-old Boer goat presents to the practice for dehorning. In anticipation of your veterinarian's need, you develop a preemptive plan for multimodal analgesia and sedation.
Which of the following would not be sufficient pain management and sedation for this animal and this procedure?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ideally, a complete multimodal plan for this patient would include all of the following:
*An alpha2-agonist such as xylazine or medetomidine
*A sedative/anxiolytic, such as butorphanol
*Bupivacaine for a local nerve block for the nerves innervating the horn and surrounding tissue
*AND a dose of an IV anti-inflammatory pain medication such as ketoprofen or flunixin Butorphanol has minimal duration for pain management. While it may cause sedation, it would not be sufficient to sedate the animal for the procedure nor provide pain management lasting well past the procedure. The addition of the nerve block would be helpful, but this does not represent a true multimodal pain management plan.
NEW QUESTION # 67
How many planes are there in stage 3 of anesthesia?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Anesthesia has been described as a series of four stages with specific reflexes and/or signs:
Stage 1: The period between administration of an anesthetic and loss of consciousness.
Respiratory efforts change as anesthesia deepens. In Stage 1, the animal is awake and respiration may be quite rapid due to the excitation of being handled. It is evenly apportioned between the chest and abdomen and is quite regular.
Stage 2: The period after the loss of consciousness, which may include actions such as uncontrolled movement, delirium, vocalization. For this reason, it may be known as the excitation phase.
Muscle tone decreases from a maximum during Stage 2 all the way through Stage 3. Jaw tone is a good indication of muscle tone. Breathing is still evenly apportioned between chest and abdomen but is less regular and breath-holding may occur.
Stage 3: The level at which surgery can be performed.
Shine a light in the eye and the pupil constricts (present at the start of Stage 3 and starts to decrease and will be absent by about the middle of Stage 3). Touch the corner of the eye or the cornea and the animal blinks (disappears early in Stage 3). Simulation of the larynx will cause the animal to swallow. The stimulation may be from outside, for example, an attempt to pass an endotracheal tube. Or this stimulation may be internal, for example, the presence of secretions in the larynx. This is a mechanism to prevent accidental aspiration of fluids into the lungs. This reflex will disappear early in Stage 3. Early in Stage 3, breathing is regular with equal contributions from chest and abdomen. As anesthesia deepens, breathing becomes shallower and more predominantly abdominal. Late in Stage 3, it becomes irregular and in Stage 4, it will stop.
Stage 3 anesthesia is divided into three planes:
*Plane 1: "Light" anesthesia - the animal still has blink and swallowing reflexes, and regular respirations
*Plane 2: "Surgical" anesthesia - the animal has lost blink reflexes, pupils become fixed but respirations remain regular.
*Plane 3: "Deep" anesthesia - the animal starts losing the ability to use the respiratory muscles and breathing becomes shallow; may require assisted ventilation.
Stage 4: Anesthetic crisis! Respiratory arrest and death from circulatory collapse are imminent.
Note: Some systems may divide Stage 3 into four planes, with planes 3 and 4 deeper than ideal.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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