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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | 50% | - Psychosocial Aspects - Communication - Professional Behaviours - Management |
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Chronic Care - Acute Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
>> Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Papers <<
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NEW QUESTION # 161
A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care" Section:
"Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
"Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries." A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.
NEW QUESTION # 162
An 88-year-old man is admitted to hospital with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. He is confused on admission, but his sensorium clears with resuscitation and stabilization. The patient lives in his own home with assistance from his children. Work-up shows metastatic gastric carcinoma for which no curative treatment can be offered. The family insists that the patient not be told the diagnosis because they fear he will have a "mental breakdown." Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Once the patient's confusion has resolved, he should be presumed capable unless an assessment shows otherwise. MCCQE ethics objectives prioritize patient autonomy, informed decision-making, and confidentiality . Families may request "therapeutic privilege" or nondisclosure, but this is not the default and cannot override a capable patient's right to information needed to make decisions. The appropriate first step is to explore the patient's preferences about receiving serious news (some patients prefer limited information or to delegate decisions). Asking the patient whether he wants to know the diagnosis respects autonomy while remaining sensitive to potential distress. Simply telling him immediately (without checking preferences) may conflict with patient-centered disclosure, and automatically complying with the family's request violates the patient's rights and undermines informed consent for goals-of-care planning. A palliative care consult is appropriate, but only after clarifying the patient's understanding and wishes and beginning honest, preference- guided communication. The clinician should also support the family, explain ethical duties, and reassure them that disclosure can be done gradually and compassionately.
NEW QUESTION # 163
You are counselling the wife of a 75-year-old man admitted under your care after a fall. The patient is confused, disoriented, barely sleeps at night and has complex visual hallucinations of animals running through his room. Given his state, which one of the following is the best advice for the wife?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This scenario describes acute delirium, common in hospitalized elderly patients. Patients may say things they don't mean. Reassuring family members not to take hurtful comments personally is an important part of family counseling.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics, "Delirium":
"Patients may become agitated, hallucinate, or be aggressive. Families should be counseled not to take the behavior personally and continue to support orientation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must support caregivers of delirious patients, providing guidance on managing emotional and behavioral symptoms." Avoiding visits (A), confronting the patient (C), or emotional withdrawal (E) are counterproductive.
Providing gentle information is appropriate (contradicts B).
NEW QUESTION # 164
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of severe left flank pain.
Her vital signs are as follows:
* Heart rate: 94/min
* Blood pressure: 130/80 mm Hg
* Temperature: 37.3 °C
A non-contrast computed tomography shows a 6 mm stone in the distal left ureter with mild associated hydronephrosis. In addition to appropriate analgesia, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Alpha blockers such as tamsulosin can facilitate the passage of ureteral stones, especially those between 5-10 mm. This is part of medical expulsive therapy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Nephrolithiasis:
"Alpha blockers help relax the ureteral smooth muscle and improve stone passage in symptomatic distal ureteral stones." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Urologic Emergencies:
"Candidates should initiate medical expulsive therapy for ureteral stones under 10 mm with alpha blockers." Reassurance alone (A) is inadequate. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated without infection. IV fluids (E) do not significantly aid stone passage. Urology consult (D) is not needed unless there's infection, intractable pain, or obstruction.
NEW QUESTION # 165
You are providing antenatal consultation to a primiparous woman of 37 weeks' gestation who was admitted for labour induction. Repeat prenatal ultrasounds confirm a chronically small fetus who has never demonstrated easily detectable fetal movement. Maternal health has been normal throughout the pregnancy and she has received all antenatal serum screening. This fetus is at significant risk for which one of the following?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A fetus that is chronically growth-restricted and has persistently reduced fetal movement raises concern for an underlying fetal condition rather than isolated placental insufficiency. MCCQE objectives emphasize that early-onset or persistent fetal growth restriction , especially when accompanied by abnormal fetal behavior (notably reduced movement), is associated with higher rates of aneuploidy and other chromosomal disorders (e.g., trisomy syndromes), as well as congenital anomalies and neuromuscular disorders. Among the listed options, chromosomal abnormalities best fit the combined pattern of longstanding small size and consistently diminished movement.
Normal maternal serum screening reduces risk but does not eliminate it; screening tests can miss chromosomal abnormalities, and some aneuploidies may not be reliably detected depending on the test used and gestational timing. Spina bifida is more typically associated with elevated maternal serum AFP and structural findings on ultrasound. Fetal stroke is usually an acute event with more abrupt changes. Congenital hypothyroidism and infantile diabetes are not typical causes of markedly reduced fetal movement with chronic growth restriction.
NEW QUESTION # 166
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