Plat-Arch-202 Quiz | Exam Plat-Arch-202 Blueprint

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Salesforce Plat-Arch-202 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Operating	8%	- Monitoring and governance 1. Post-deployment monitoring 2. Incident management
Releasing	14%	- Release management 1. Rollback strategies 2. Release windows
Deploying	13%	- Deployment tools and automation 1. Salesforce DX 2. CI/CD pipelines
Planning	10%	- Release planning 1. Milestone definition 2. Dependency planning
Application Lifecycle Management	17%	- Version control strategies 1. Branching models (Git-based workflows) 2. Source-driven development - Change management processes 1. Governance policies 2. Change approval workflows
System Design	15%	- Environment strategy 1. Environment parity 2. Sandbox strategy
Testing	10%	- Test automation 1. Unit testing strategies 2. Regression testing
Building	13%	- Development practices 1. Code review standards 2. Metadata-driven development

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Salesforce Certified Platform Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Sample Questions (Q18-Q23):

NEW QUESTION # 18
Universal Container has multiple departments who use Salesforce and request changes: Sales, Service, Back Office, Marketing, etc. Each of these departments makes independent purchase decisions for AppExchange apps, field requests, and page layouts, resulting in low adoption and under -use of standard Salesforce capabilities. What mechanism should a Technical Architect recommend to increase use of standard Salesforce functionality?

A. Change Control Board
B. Center of Excellence
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Project Management Office

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 19
Universal Containers (UC) currently uses the org development model and utilizes the Salesforce CLI as the deployment tool. After the feature release artifact (a .zip file) has been tested in a lower sandbox, it is being deployed to the full sandbox for performance testing and production deployment readiness check-Since quick deployment options are not being used, what is the correct way to deploy the artifact to the full sandbox?

A. Authorize to the Full sandbox org; Validate with sfdximdapi:deploy; On successful validation, deploy with sfdx:mdapi:deploy
B. Authorize to the Full sandbox org; Validate with sfdx:source:deploy; On successful validation, deploy with sfdx:source:deploy
C. Authorize to the Full sandbox; validate with sfdx: source: deploy; On successful validation, deploy with sfdx;mdapi;deploy
D. Authorize to the Full sandbox org; Validate with sfdx:mdapi:deploy; On successful validation, deploy with sfdx:source:deploy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 20
Universal Containers (UC) is looking for advice on how often it should refresh its sandboxes. UC currently uses a development lifecycle that starts with developer environments and moves to integration testing, QA testing, UAT, and then production. They have many scrum teams working concurrently and the teams do not agree on when refreshes should occur.
What two recommendations should the architect suggest? Choose 2 answers

A. Sandboxes should be refreshed on the day when the refresh is allowed for that type of sandbox.
B. Productions is the only pristine environment.
C. Development environments should generally be refreshed after each working feature has been successfully migrated.
D. Integration sandboxes should be refreshed rarely because of the burden of maintaining the various API.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The correct selection is A, C. Sandbox refreshes should be driven by environment purpose and lifecycle milestones, not simply by the earliest allowed refresh date. Development environments can be refreshed after completed work is safely promoted, while production remains the authoritative baseline from which controlled environment synchronization occurs. From a planning perspective, the architect must reduce uncertainty before execution by defining ownership, governance, environment purpose, prioritization, and measurable acceptance criteria. Decisions should be repeatable and visible across teams so delivery capacity, risk, and stakeholder expectations remain aligned throughout the lifecycle. The alternatives are weaker because they address a symptom rather than establishing the governance or environment decision required before implementation begins. For this scenario, the decisive point is therefore the platform behavior represented by the selected options (A. Development environments should generally be refreshed after each working feature has been successfully migrated.; C. Productions is the only pristine environment.). Applying that rule consistently keeps the implementation aligned with Salesforce-supported lifecycle practices and makes the resulting change easier to review, validate, and operate across environments.
Study Guide reference: Planning - governance; agile planning; environment strategy; backlog prioritization; sandbox strategy; stakeholder alignment.

NEW QUESTION # 21
Universal Containers (UC) has many different business units, all requesting new projects to be built into a single Salesforce Org. UC management is concerned with a lack of appropriate project properties and roadmap for the Salesforce ecosystem. What should an Architect recommend?

A. Create a Release Management Process.
B. Use design Standards for Governance.
C. Create project charters for each project.
D. Create a Center of Excellence with a charter document.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 22
Metadata API supports deploy () and retrieve () calls for file-based deployment.
Which two scenarios are the primary use cases for writing code to call retrieve () and deploy () methods directly?
Choose 2 answers

A. Team development of an application in a Developer Edition organization. After
B. Development of a custom application in a scratch org. After completing development and
C. Development of a custom application in a sandbox organization. After completing
D. Development of a customization in a sandbox organization. The deployment team then

Answer: B,D

NEW QUESTION # 23
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