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Fortinet NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Events, Forensics, and Threat Hunting25%- Threat hunting profiles and queries
- Forensic analysis and incident investigation
- Security event and alert analysis
- Threat hunting data interpretation
Topic 2: FortiEDR System Architecture and Deployment25%- Multi-tenancy deployment
- Inventory management and system tools
- API-based management operations
- Installation and deployment process
- Architecture and technical positioning
Topic 3: Security Settings and Policies25%- Communication control policies
- Playbooks creation and management
- Security policies configuration
- Fortinet Cloud Service (FCS) integration
Topic 4: Integration and Security Fabric15%- FortiXDR deployment and configuration
- Fortinet Security Fabric integration
Topic 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting10%- System monitoring and health checks
- Performance and issue diagnosis
- Log and alert troubleshooting

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Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiEDR 7.0 Administrator Sample Questions (Q13-Q18):

NEW QUESTION # 13
Refer to the Exhibit:

Based on the FortiEDR status output shown in the exhibit, what are two reasons for the degraded state?
(Choose two answers)

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The exhibit shows:
FortiEDR Service: Up
FortiEDR Driver: Up
FortiEDR Status: Degraded (no configuration)
This means the local Collector service and driver are running, but the Collector has not received valid configuration. In FortiEDR, a Collector must register and communicate with the FortiEDR Aggregator to receive its configuration. The guide states that the Collector initially sends registration information to the FortiEDR Aggregator using SSL, sends ongoing health/status/security-event information, and receives its configuration from the Aggregator.
During installation, a non-customized Windows Collector requires the correct Aggregator address , Aggregator port 8081 , and registration password . The guide explicitly states that the Aggregator port should be specified as 8081 , and that the registration password must be entered during installation.
Therefore, an incorrect registration password or incorrect port number can prevent proper registration
/configuration retrieval, resulting in a degraded/no-configuration state.
Option A is not the best answer because Windows Firewall being enabled by itself does not automatically cause this FortiEDR status; only if it blocks required FortiEDR communication would it matter, and the option is too generic. Option D is also not correct as written because the Collector receives configuration from the Aggregator , not directly from the Central Manager. The guide describes Collector-to-Aggregator communication for registration and configuration.
=========


NEW QUESTION # 14
Refer to the Exhibit:

A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
=========


NEW QUESTION # 15
You are asked to configure a query to run every 15 minutes, automatically searching for specific registry modifications across all endpoints. Which FortiEDR feature must you configure? (Choose one answer)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting searches across endpoint activity events, including registry activity. It states that Threat Hunting can search based on attributes of files, registry keys and values, network, processes, event log, and activity event types. This fits the requirement to search for specific registry modifications across endpoints.
The guide also explains that after filtering activity events, the query can be saved and defined as a Scheduled Query. It says: "Scheduled Query: Mark this option to automate the process of detecting threats so that this query is run automatically according to the schedule that you define." It also states that a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab when matches are detected, and notifications can be sent through email, Syslog, and other configured methods.
The guide further states that the Repeat Every/On options define the frequency and schedule when the query runs. Therefore, a 15-minute recurring query is handled through the Scheduled Query capability in Threat Hunting, not Communication Control, policy override, or a manual Playbook trigger.
Strictly speaking, the guide calls this a scheduled query under Threat Hunting saved queries, not a
"communication control rule" or "manual query." Option C is the intended answer.
=========


NEW QUESTION # 16
Refer to the exhibit:

You are asked to block applications based on hash attributes. Which two factors must you consider when applying the hash value? (Choose two answers)

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that when manually adding applications to be blocked, you can define the application using Hash or using any combination of File Name / Path / Signer attributes. This means hashes can be used independently and do not require filename, path, or signer attributes.
The guide also states that each hash is a unique identifier of an individual application, and the exhibit itself shows the hash field note: "SHA-1 or SHA-2 or MD5." Therefore, the hash must use a supported hash format, making D correct.
For multiple hash entries, the uploaded guide text says they must be comma separated , while the exhibit note says "You can enter multiple hashes comma separated." So the technically exact guide wording supports comma separation, not line separation. However, given your answer choices, A is clearly trying to test the requirement that multiple hashes must be separated correctly. The option wording says "line- separated," which is not exact against the guide; the better wording would be comma-separated . Since no
"comma-separated" option is provided, A is the intended separation-related answer, but the wording is flawed.
Option B is definitely wrong because hash mode is an alternative to attributes. Option C is also not the best answer because, although each hash uniquely identifies a file/application variant, the operational requirement is not that "hashes must be unique to each application" in the way the option implies. Hashes may represent different variants of the same application.


NEW QUESTION # 17
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that Identity Management integration can use FortiClient EMS. The connector requires API credentials or FortiCloud credentials depending on whether FortiClient EMS is on-premises or cloud-based. The guide states that for the out-of-the-box action, such as Zero Trust device tagging on FortiClient EMS, FortiEDR tags the device as non-trusted in the identity management system and specifies the classification tag to apply in the Tag name field.
The guide also lists predefined FortiClient EMS 7.2 or later fabric tags used by FortiEDR, including FortiEDR_Malicious, FortiEDR_PUP, FortiEDR_Suspicious, FortiEDR_Likely_Safe, and FortiEDR_Probably_Good. These tags are used by FortiClient EMS to tag the endpoint based on FortiEDR classification.
Finally, the guide states that to configure the automated response, the administrator must go to Security Settings > Playbooks, open the relevant Playbook policy, and place a checkmark in the relevant classification column next to the Zero Trust device tagging row under Remediation. FortiEDR is then configured to automatically tag a device as non-trusted when a security event is triggered.
Options A, B, and D are wrong. FortiEDR does not remove unmanaged endpoints, does not apply a default tag to every endpoint, and does not disable the endpoint merely until a tag is assigned. The action is API- based FortiClient EMS tagging tied to FortiEDR event classification


NEW QUESTION # 18
......

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