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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 2
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 3
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 4
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 5
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 6
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 7
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 8
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 9
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 10
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q98-Q103):

NEW QUESTION # 98
What does PHI stand for in healthcare privacy regulations?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), PHI stands for Protected Health Information. It includes any individually identifiable health information related to a patient's health status, provision of healthcare, or payment for healthcare. Protection of PHI is a key compliance topic on the CPC exam.


NEW QUESTION # 99
A patient has a 5 cm tumor in the left lower quadrant abdominal wall, excised through dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Pathology is pending to rule out cancer.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
22903 = Excision of soft tissue tumor, abdominal wall, subcutaneous, 3 cm or greater D49.2 = Neoplasm of unspecified behavior of soft tissue R codes are not used when a neoplasm is documented


NEW QUESTION # 100
View MR 001394
MR 001394
Operative Report
Procedure: Excision of 11 cm back lesion with rotation flap repair.
Preoperative Diagnosis: Basal cell carcinoma
Postoperative Diagnosis: Same
Anesthesia: 1% Xylocaine solution with epinephrine warmed and buffered and injected slowly through a
30-gauge needle for the patient's comfort.
Location: Back
Size of Excision: 11 cm
Estimated Blood Loss: Minimal
Complications: None
Specimen: Sent to the lab in saline for frozen section margin control.
Procedure: The patient was taken to our surgical suite, placed in a comfortable position, prepped and draped, and locally anesthetized in the usual sterile fashion. A #15 scalpel blade was used to excise the basal cell carcinoma plus a margin of normal skin in a circular fashion in the natural relaxed skin tension lines as much as possible The lesion was removed full thickness including epidermis, dermis, and partial thickness subcutaneous tissues. The wound was then spot electro desiccated for hemorrhage control. The specimen was sent to the lab on saline for frozen section.
Rotation flap repair of defect created by foil thickness frozen section excision of basal cell carcinoma of the back. We were able to devise a 12 sq cm flap and advance it using rotation flap closure technique. This will prevent infection, dehiscence, and help reconstruct the area to approximate the situation as it was prior to surgical excision diminishing the risk of significant pain and distortion of the anatomy in the area. This was advanced medially to close the defect with 5 0 Vicryl and 6-0 Prolene stitches.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: C

Explanation:
For the excision of an 11 cm lesion with a rotation flap repair, the appropriate CPT codes are 14001 for the adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement (12 sq cm flap) and 11606-51 for the excision of a malignant lesion including margins, face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips; excised diameter over 4.0 cm. Modifier 51 indicates multiple procedures. The detailed operative report specifies the lesion size and the technique used, justifying these codes.References: CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.


NEW QUESTION # 101
A 43-year-old female with a history of joint pain and fatigue presents to the office with swollen salivary glands. Patient agrees to have a labial gland biopsy performed in office. Patient is numbed with a local anesthetic. Then an incision is made on the lower labial mucosa and tissue samples from the salivary gland are removed with tweezers. The incision is sutured. Pathology report findings are consistent with Sjogren's syndrome.
What CPTcode is reported?

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The scenario describes a labial gland biopsy of the salivary gland, performed in the office with a local anesthetic. The provider made an incision in the lower labial mucosa and took tissue samples from the salivary gland for biopsy.
Code 42400 is the correct CPTcode for a biopsy of a salivary gland. This code is specific to a biopsy without a more extensive excision or major surgery, aligning perfectly with the scenario of sampling salivary gland tissue.
2. Ruling Out Other Options:
Code 42408 is for the excision of a deep lobe of a parotid gland, which is a more extensive procedure than a simple biopsy and does not apply to this case.
Code 42405 is for the removal of an entire submandibular gland, which is a full excision and not applicable here.
Code 42450 is used for the removal of a sublingual gland, not for a biopsy of the labial salivary gland.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC and CPTguidelines direct coders to use 42400 for minor biopsies of salivary gland tissue, particularly when only tissue samples are taken for diagnostic purposes, as described in this case.
Based on CPTcoding guidelines, the correct answer is C. 42400.


NEW QUESTION # 102
A three-year-old patient is in the operative suite for stage 2 of treatment for double right outlet syndrome. The patient previously had the pulmonary artery banded and is returning for removal of the pulmonary band and transposition repair of the great vessels via aortic pulmonary reconstruction.
The surgeon performs a time-out and pre-incision review of respiration and BP then the previous sternal incision site is inspected and lightly painted with povidone. Next, reopens the sternal cavity and inserts central cannulae in the IVC, SVC and ascending aorta for extra corporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) bypass, chemical cardioplegia is initiated, stopping the heart and ECMO is initiated. A physician assistant monitors vitals and oxygenation until heart function resumes. The surgeon carefully incised and removes the Dacron band encircling the pulmonary artery, with nominal need for dilation. A section of coronary ostia is removed and sutured to the root of the pulmonary trunk. The pulmonary trunk and aortic root are then transected and transposed to allow for ideal cardiac circulation. Once structural integrity is visually confirmed, the physician assistant is permitted to administer the cardioplegia reversal solution and the surgeon removes the central cannulae after heart function safely resumes. The sternotomy is closed and the patient is transported to the NICU.
What CPT codes are reported for the surgery today?

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Procedure Details and CPT Code Selection:
The patient is undergoing stage 2 treatment for double outlet right ventricle (DORV) with a removal of the pulmonary artery band and transposition repair of the great vessels.
Code 33779 is specific for correction of a double outlet right ventricle, with transposition of the great arteries. This code accurately reflects the procedure performed, including the complex repair involving the transposition of the pulmonary trunk and aortic root.
Code 33953 is used to report the initiation of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), which was used to maintain oxygenation during the procedure.
Code 33985 is for the termination of ECMO following the surgical repair once heart function has resumed. Both 33953 and 33985 accurately document the initiation and termination of ECMO during this complex heart repair.
2. Modifier Selection:
Modifier 78 (unplanned return to the operating room for a related procedure during the postoperative period) is appropriate here. This is a subsequent stage in the treatment plan, but due to the complexity and specific surgical intervention required, it is treated as a return to the OR for related procedure coding.
Modifier 58 (staged or related procedure during the postoperative period) would not be as suitable here because the procedure involves a new return to the OR.
3. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines support the use of specific modifiers (78 for unplanned return) and appropriate ECMO codes (33953 and 33985) in complex cardiac cases requiring bypass and staged treatment.
Thus, the correct CPT codes based on CPT and AAPC coding standards are C. 33779-78, 33953-78, 33985-78.


NEW QUESTION # 103
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