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CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Mobile Devices15%- Mobile device management (MDM)
- Cellular connectivity and settings
- Mobile device configuration
- Mobile device troubleshooting
- Mobile device synchronization
Networking20%- IP addressing and subnetting basics
- Network configurations
- Network troubleshooting
- Network protocols and services
- Network hardware and devices
- Network connectivity
Hardware27%- RAM types and installation
- Peripheral devices and connections
- BIOS/UEFI and firmware
- Power supplies and connectors
- PC hardware and peripherals
- Storage devices (HDD, SSD, NVMe)
- CPU and expansion cards
Hardware and Network Troubleshooting26%- Printers and multifunction devices
- Hardware troubleshooting
- Mobile device troubleshooting
- Network troubleshooting
- Troubleshooting methodology
- Common symptoms and root causes
Virtualization and Cloud Computing12%- Cloud connectivity and configuration
- Cloud concepts and models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS)
- Virtualization fundamentals
- Cloud and virtualization troubleshooting
- Virtual machine concepts

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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Sample Questions (Q151-Q156):

NEW QUESTION # 151
The Chief Information Security Officer asks a technician to inventory desktop PCs to determine which ones meet the requirements for Secure Boot. The technician must also configure the PCs for non-user-controllable keys. Which of the following are necessary to meet the enhanced security requirements? (Select two).

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide) To run Secure Boot, the system must have:
# UEFI firmware (not legacy BIOS)
Secure Boot is a UEFI feature that validates bootloaders using digitally signed keys stored in secure firmware.
# TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
The TPM stores cryptographic keys in tamper-resistant hardware, enabling secure key management that cannot be altered by normal users.
CompTIA materials describe TPM as essential for enhanced platform security and for storing validated boot keys when Secure Boot is enabled.
Together, UEFI + TPM provide:
* Verified boot loader
* Hardware-level key protection
* Prevention of unauthorized OS tampering
* Non-user-controllable secure key storage
Why the other options are incorrect
A). VDI - Virtual desktops; unrelated to Secure Boot hardware requirements.
B). BIOS password - Helps protect firmware settings but is not required for Secure Boot.
E). Disabled boot drive - Irrelevant to Secure Boot.
F). USB permissions - Not part of Secure Boot requirements.
Final Answer: C, D


NEW QUESTION # 152
A user's laptop experiences intermittent issues during startup. A technician finds that the user has left a corporate flash drive plugged in, which is causing the issues. Which of the following should the technician configure?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The issue occurs because the system is attempting to boot from the plugged-in USB device.
Configuring boot options allows the technician to set the correct boot priority (e.g., internal drive first) or disable booting from USB, preventing startup conflicts caused by external media.


NEW QUESTION # 153
Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for recovery from data faults in memory modules?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Error-correcting code memory detects and corrects data corruption in memory, allowing recovery from faults and improving system reliability.


NEW QUESTION # 154
An administrator configures a web server that must be accessible to anyone outside the office. Which of the following is required for the web server to be accessible externally?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A public IP address is required so internet-based clients can route traffic to the organization's network. Public addresses are globally routable and are normally assigned by an internet service provider. The web server may itself use a private address, but the organization's internet-facing router must have a public address and use port forwarding or static NAT to direct HTTP or HTTPS requests to the internal server. Merely having an IPv4 or IPv6 address is insufficient because either protocol can use addresses that are not externally routable.
A dynamic address can be public, but it may change and is therefore unsuitable for reliable server hosting unless dynamic DNS is configured. The defining requirement is public reachability, not whether the address is IPv4, IPv6, static, or dynamic. Therefore, a public IP address is the best answer.


NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following is used to prevent unwanted emails from reaching an inbox?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A spam gateway is an email-security system positioned in the mail-delivery path. It examines incoming messages and attempts to identify spam, phishing messages, malicious attachments, suspicious links, spoofed senders, and other unwanted content.
Depending on its configuration, a spam gateway can:
Reject the message.
Quarantine it for review.
Mark it as spam.
Deliver it to a junk-mail folder.
Remove or block malicious content.
Because the question specifically asks about preventing unwanted email from reaching an inbox, a spam gateway is the most precise answer.
A proxy server commonly intermediates web or application requests.
An intrusion detection system monitors activity and generates alerts but does not primarily filter email.
A firewall filters network connections and ports but normally does not perform detailed email- content classification.
CompTIA objective 2.3 explicitly identifies spam gateways as network-based internet appliances.
Microsoft's anti-spam documentation explains that spam filtering identifies and separates unwanted email from legitimate messages


NEW QUESTION # 156
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