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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Handling and Investigation
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Security Monitoring and Analysis
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
|
>> CS0-004 Authorized Test Dumps <<
The CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Questions give you a complete insight into each chapter and an easy understanding with simple and quick-to-understand language. The CompTIA CS0-004 exam dumps are the best choice to make. The common problem CompTIA CS0-004 Exam applicants face is seeking updated and real CompTIA CS0-004 practice test questions to prepare successfully for the cherished CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam CS0-004 certification exam.
NEW QUESTION # 169
An incident response manager conducts a tabletop exercise. Which of the following steps should the incident response manager take next?
Answer: A
Explanation:
After completing a tabletop exercise, the next step is to review the exercise outcomes and identify gaps, strengths, and areas for improvement in the incident response process. This lessons- learned phase helps refine procedures, update playbooks, and improve the organization's preparedness for real incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of the following phases of the incident response process will permanently remove an attacker's access to corporate resources?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Eradication addresses the root causes and malicious mechanisms that allow an attacker to remain inside the environment. Typical eradication actions include deleting malware, removing persistence mechanisms, disabling unauthorized accounts, resetting compromised credentials, eliminating malicious scheduled tasks or services, correcting exploited vulnerabilities, and rebuilding systems when trust cannot be restored.
This differs fundamentally from containment. Containment is intended to limit immediate damage or prevent further spread , such as isolating an infected workstation, blocking an IP address, disabling a network segment, or temporarily suspending an account. These measures can interrupt attacker activity, but they do not necessarily remove the underlying foothold. Microsoft security architecture guidance similarly distinguishes containment from eradication and describes eradication procedures as completely removing the threat from the environment.
Detection identifies that suspicious or malicious activity exists; it does not remove access. Denial of service is an attack or availability condition rather than a recognized incident-response phase.
Therefore, if the examination asks which phase permanently removes the adversary's access , the correct answer is eradication because this is where attacker persistence and the enabling compromise are eliminated before normal operations are fully restored.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Containment # Eradication # Persistence Removal # Credential Reset # Malware Removal # Vulnerability Remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following describes the reason Zero Trust should be followed on cloud-based architecture designs?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Zero Trust reduces the attack surface by enforcing least-privilege access, continuous verification, and strict segmentation of resources. In cloud environments, this limits the ability of attackers to move laterally or gain broad access if a user account, device, or workload is compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 172
A binary file that might contain malicious code is hosted on an isolated machine. An analyst wants to quickly detect the malicious code. Which of the following should the analyst use?
Answer: A
Explanation:
YARA scans files locally for patterns and signatures associated with known malware. It is appropriate for an isolated system, whereas VirusTotal requires uploading or querying the file online.
NEW QUESTION # 173
A security operations center analyst is using the command line to display specific traffic.
The analyst uses the following command:
$tshark -r file.pcap -Y "http or udp"
Which of the following will the command line display?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The -r file.pcap argument instructs TShark to read packets from the specified capture file, while -Y applies a Wireshark display filter . The expression "http or udp" therefore displays packets recognized as HTTP or packets using UDP.
Traditional HTTP traffic is unencrypted and can be dissected directly as HTTP. HTTPS normally carries HTTP inside TLS encryption and therefore is not displayed merely because the filter specifies http. DNS commonly operates over UDP, particularly for standard queries and responses, so ordinary DNS traffic satisfies the udp portion of the expression. Consequently, B is the best answer in the context of the available choices.
A technical distinction is important: the expression does not mean "HTTP or DNS specifically." The udp portion matches UDP traffic generally, which can include protocols other than DNS. Nevertheless, within the examination scenario, the intended comparison is plaintext HTTP versus encrypted HTTPS together with standard UDP-based DNS.
Wireshark's documentation distinguishes display filters from capture filters, and TShark is the command-line network traffic analyzer within the Wireshark suite. CS0-004 places packet-analysis capabilities within Security Operations.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Packet Analysis # Wireshark/TShark # PCAP Analysis # Display Filters # HTTP, UDP, and DNS.
NEW QUESTION # 174
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