MCCQE受験対策 & MCCQE合格内容

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Dimensions of Care50%- Assessment and Diagnosis
- Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
- Acute Care
- Chronic Care
Topic 2: Physician Activities50%- Psychosocial Aspects
- Professional Behaviours
- Management
- Communication

>> MCCQE受験対策 <<

MCCQE受験対策を選択し,MCCQE Part 1 Examに合格する

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam 認定 MCCQE 試験問題 (Q37-Q42):

質問 # 37
Following a potluck supper organized by the residency director of your training program, many of your fellow residents and other guests fall ill with gastroenteritis. Which one of the following is the best way to identify the source of this food-borne outbreak?

正解:B

解説:
Calculating food-specific attack rates (i.e., number of people who became ill after eating aparticular food divided by the total number who ate that food) is the most effective method to identify the probable source of infection in a known cohort outbreak.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health, Outbreak Investigations:
"Foodborne outbreaks are best analyzed using food-specific attack rates to determine associations between individual foods and illness." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Epidemiologic Principles:
"Candidates must use epidemiologic tools, such as attack rates, to identify probable sources during outbreak investigations." Cohort study (C) is also acceptable but more time-intensive. Stool and food cultures (B, D) confirm the pathogen but not the source. HACCP (E) is a preventive method, not a tool for outbreak investigation.


質問 # 38
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the office because he is not using his right arm after a fall from a swing.
Radiographs reveal a new fracture and old healing fractures. The parents deny any previous injuries. In addition to providing care for the fracture, which one of the following is the best next step?

正解:C

解説:
The clinical presentation ofmultiple fractures at different stages of healingin a young child raisesstrong suspicion of physical abuse(non-accidental trauma). In such situations,mandatory reporting to child protection services is legally and ethically required, even in the absence of parental admission or clear history.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Child Maltreatment Section:
"Red flags include inconsistent history, delay in seeking care, multiple injuries in various stages of healing, and injuries not consistent with developmental level. Health care professionals arelegally obligatedto report suspected child abuse or neglect to child protection authorities without delay." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medical Expert > Pediatrics > 77-2):
"The candidate must be able to recognize when the findings are consistent with child abuse... When child abuse is suspected,the physician has a legal obligation to report to the appropriate child protection agency immediately." Options B, C, D, and E do not address the immediate child safety risk and legal duty. Social work involvement (E) is supportive but must follow or accompany notification to child protection, not replace it.


質問 # 39
A 34-year-old man sustained a blunt testicular trauma 2 hours ago. On physical examination, the patient has a
1.5-cm tall scrotal hematoma. You cannot palpate the testicle. Which one of the following is the best initial management?

正解:C

解説:
In cases of blunt testicular trauma with inability to palpate the testicle due to hematoma, scrotal ultrasonography is the first-line investigation to assess for testicular rupture or other injury.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, "Testicular Trauma":
"Scrotal ultrasound is the investigation of choice to assess for testicular rupture, hematoma, or torsion. Early imaging is critical if testis is non-palpable or if hematoma is significant." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Genitourinary Trauma):
"Candidates must investigate testicular trauma using ultrasound to rule out rupture or torsion." Exploration (B) is done if ultrasound confirms rupture. Observation or discharge (A, E) without imaging risks missing serious injury.


質問 # 40
A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic accompanied by his 70-year-old husband. The patient reports that, over the last several months, his libido has been very low. Which one of the following would be the best next step?

正解:B

解説:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Decreased libido in elderly patients can be multifactorial, but depression is a common and important cause that must be ruled out before hormone therapy or other steps. A proper mental health screen should precede further interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry / Geriatrics:
"In elderly men, reduced libido may be linked to depression, medical illness, or medications. Depression screening is essential." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Mood Disorders / Sexual Health):
"Candidates must consider depression as a common cause of decreased libido and assess accordingly before initiating hormone therapy." Testosterone testing (D) may follow. Prescribing (C) is premature. Couples counselling (B) may help if interpersonal issues are identified. Interviewing together (A) may inhibit disclosure.
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質問 # 41
An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with dizziness. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease. On examination, she is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are as follows:
Her electrocardiogram is shown in the image.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Blood pressure
80/60 mm Hg
Heart rate
40/min
Respiratory rate
12/min
Her electrocardiogram is shown in the attached image. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

正解:E

解説:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The ECG reveals:
* Regular P waves that are not consistently followed by QRS complexes
* A dissociation between the atrial (P wave) and ventricular (QRS complex) activity
* A slow ventricular rate (~40 bpm) independent of atrial rate
These findings are characteristic of a third-degree (complete) atrioventricular (AV) block, where there is no conduction of atrial impulses to the ventricles. The atria and ventricles beatindependently, and the ventricular rate is maintained by an escape rhythm, often junctional or ventricular in origin.
This correlates with the patient's symptoms (dizziness, hypotension) and bradycardia, suggesting inadequate cardiac output due to AV dissociation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology:
"Third-degree AV block shows complete AV dissociation with independent atrial and ventricular activity. It typically presents with bradycardia and hypotension. Urgent pacing may be required." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-2: Bradyarrhythmias and Conduction Disorders):
"Candidates must identify complete heart block and recognize its clinical urgency." Ruling out other options:
* A. Sinus bradycardia would show regular P waves with 1:1 P-QRS conduction.
* B. First-degree AV block has prolonged PR intervals (>200 ms) but all P waves are conducted.
* D. Junctional escape rhythm may present with bradycardia, but P waves would be absent, inverted, or occur after QRS complexes.
* E. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) has progressively lengthening PR intervals before a dropped QRS.


質問 # 42
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