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| Certification Vendor: | ACDIS |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient |
| Exam Number: | CCDS-O |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Related Certifications: | CCDS |
| Exam Format: | Multiple Choice, Scenario-Based Items, Application & Analysis |
| Sample Questions: | ACDIS CCDS-O Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Proctored at testing centers |
| Pre Condition: | Candidates must have a background in healthcare, coding, or clinical documentation. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://acdis.org/certifications/certified-clinical-documentation-specialist-outpatient |
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NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?
Answer: B
Explanation:
To support a query for alcohol dependence in remission, outpatient CDI practice looks for indicators that reflect a documented history of dependence plus evidence the patient is actively maintaining sobriety or being followed for recovery status. Attendance at AA meetings together with a documented history of excessive alcohol use is a strong, direct indicator of recovery efforts and ongoing monitoring of a prior substance use disorder. This combination supports clarifying whether the provider intends to diagnose alcohol dependence in remission (versus current dependence, use without dependence, or no current disorder). By contrast, cirrhosis and elevated liver enzymes (option A) can be caused by many etiologies and do not, by themselves, establish dependence or remission status. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention (option D) are nonspecific and may suggest acute illness or liver disease but are not specific to remission. Occasional social drinking with recreational drug use (option C) suggests current substance use and would not support "in remission" without additional documentation. Therefore, option B best supports a remission-related query.
NEW QUESTION # 60
For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Outpatient/provider coding relies on two major code sets: ICD-10-CM for diagnoses and CPT/HCPCS for professional services, procedures, and supplies. Because of that, outpatient coding authority is anchored not only in the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines and AHA Coding Clinic guidance for diagnosis reporting, but also in the authoritative guidance that clarifies CPT/HCPCS reporting. ACDIS outpatient CDI education stresses that CDI specialists must understand both sides: the diagnosis coding rules (ICD-10-CM) and the procedural/service reporting rules (CPT/HCPCS) that drive much of outpatient reimbursement. AMA's CPT Assistant is a key interpretive authority for CPT coding guidance, while AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS provides clarification on HCPCS Level II reporting. The other options focus on ICD-10-PCS guidelines and DRG tools, which are primarily inpatient facility concepts (PCS is inpatient procedure coding; DRGs are inpatient payment groupers). Therefore, the correct supplemental outpatient authority pair is AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA's CPT Assistant.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A prospective query is initiated early enough (before or during the visit workflow) so the provider can evaluate, assess, and document the condition in real time while the patient is present. This is a major provider benefit because it supports better clinical accuracy and completeness: the clinician can ask targeted questions, perform relevant exam elements, review results, and determine whether the condition is present, active, being monitored, or ruled out-then document the final clinical impression and plan. From an ACDIS outpatient CDI perspective, prospective querying improves efficiency and reduces retrospective "chart-chasing," late addenda, and documentation gaps that occur when clarification is requested after the encounter is closed. Importantly, prospective queries must remain non-leading and cannot direct the provider to a particular diagnosis (eliminating option A). They also cannot "guarantee" risk-adjusted capture because the diagnosis must be clinically supported and addressed (eliminating option B). Defining the purpose of the encounter is driven by the clinical reason for visit, not by CDI (eliminating option D).
NEW QUESTION # 62
An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In MSSP-style ACO financial reconciliation, performance is evaluated against a benchmark (expected costs). Here, the ACO's actual spending ($52M) exceeds the expected benchmark ($50M) by $2M, meaning the ACO generated shared losses rather than savings. In risk-bearing ACO arrangements, when costs exceed the benchmark and the ACO is in a track that includes downside risk, the organization may owe CMS a portion of those losses. The shared savings/loss rate (50% in this scenario) represents the percentage of the difference from the benchmark that the ACO shares with CMS, assuming applicable thresholds are met. Thus, instead of receiving a shared savings payment, the ACO would be accountable to pay back a share of the excess spending (conceptually 50% of the $2M overage, if all model requirements are satisfied). Option D is not correct because reconciliation is typically performed on a performance-year basis rather than only at the end of the full agreement period, and option C is not how MSSP eligibility works.
NEW QUESTION # 63
ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient's provider in which of the following circumstances?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Outpatient ICD-10-CM guidance allows certain code elements to be based on documentation from clinicians other than the patient's diagnosing provider when those elements are considered objective, routinely assessed, and commonly documented by nursing or ancillary staff. A key example is pressure ulcer staging, which is frequently assessed and documented by wound care nurses and other qualified clinicians as part of routine skin/wound evaluation. Because the stage drives code specificity and is an observable clinical finding, coders may use non-provider documentation to assign the stage when it is clearly documented and not contradicted by the provider record. In contrast, items such as the type of obesity generally require provider diagnosis/clinical assessment rather than ancillary documentation alone. Similarly, while status conditions (like amputations or ostomies) may be observed, the coding guidelines do not broadly permit assigning these diagnoses solely from non-provider documentation without provider confirmation, unless the chart otherwise supports it. Therefore, among the choices, pressure ulcer stage is the appropriate circumstance where non-provider documentation can support ICD-10-CM assignment.
NEW QUESTION # 64
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