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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Event analysis and investigation - Incident response workflows - Real-time threat blocking - Forensic data collection - Automated threat remediation |
| Topic 2: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - System monitoring and diagnostics - Log management and export - Upgrade and patch management - Backup and recovery procedures - User management and role-based access |
| Topic 3: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - FortiEDR core architecture overview - Management Platform architecture - Collector Agent components and functionality - Communication Manager and Cloud Console |
| Topic 4: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Custom policy creation and modification - Policy assignment and targeting - Default security policies overview - Exclusion configuration - Application control rules |
| Topic 5: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Communication Manager setup - Management Platform deployment - Collector Agent installation methods - Initial configuration and licensing |
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NEW QUESTION # 22
You are asked to create a playbook to isolate a device with a collector. Which action category does isolating a device with a collector fall under? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Investigation .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that Investigation actions enable administrators to isolate a device or assign it to a high-security Collector Group for further investigation of the device's activity. Under the Investigation section, the guide lists the available investigation action types, including "Isolate device with Collector," "Isolate device with NAC," and "Move device to High Security Group." For Isolate device with Collector , the guide explains that the action blocks communication to and from the affected Collector, and it applies only to endpoint Collectors. If the Playbook policy is configured to isolate a device for a malicious event, then when a malicious security event is triggered, the device is isolated from communicating with the outside world for both sending and receiving.
So, this is not a Remediation , Custom , or Notification action. In FortiEDR Playbook policy terminology, Isolate device with Collector belongs under Investigation .
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NEW QUESTION # 23
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization .
The key point is that Communication Control is not available in Hoster view . In a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment, Hoster view is the view used to display information for all organizations together. However, the guide clearly states under the Hoster view section: "Communication Control - The Communication Control window is not available in Hoster view." That means you cannot create one global Communication Control policy from Hoster view and assign it across all organizations. Options B , C , and D all assume cross-organization/global Communication Control policy assignment, but the guide does not support that capability. The practical recommendation is to configure Communication Control policies separately inside each organization.
The guide contrasts this with Security Policies, where in Hoster view the Security Policies page displays all policies from all organizations and supports cloning a security policy from one organization to another. That statement is for Security Policies , not Communication Control policies.
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NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious . In FortiEDR, event classification can be performed by the Core and later updated by FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) . The guide states that the audit history shows the classification chronology and includes details when FCS reclassifies a security event after the Core' s initial classification. It also states that notifications can be based on either Core or FCS classification depending on whether FCS classification is received within the timeout period.
The exhibit also shows TestApplication.exe with Status: Running . That means the process was launched and is currently running on the endpoint. Therefore, C is correct.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit clearly shows Status: Unhandled , not Handled. The guide states that FortiEDR security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and users can later mark them handled through the incident handling workflow.
Option D is wrong because the exhibit shows rule indicators such as Invalid Checksum , Suspicious Packer
, and Writable Code , but it does not prove that TestApplication.exe is "sophisticated malware." FortiEDR classifies the event as malicious, but the guide's Malicious classification means the event is verified to have malicious capability, is intended to harm the infected device, and has no commercially viable use; the exhibit alone does not justify the stronger claim "sophisticated malware."
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NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 26
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the threat hunting event details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true?
(Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D .
The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target
. It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .
The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam's intended wording.
Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.
Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 27
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