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NEW QUESTION # 561
A company hired an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company started having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:
Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Choose two.)
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to
192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include .com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.
NEW QUESTION # 562
Which of the following best explains the importance of determining organization risk appetite when operating with a constrained budget?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk appetite defines the level of risk an organization is willing to accept. When budgets are constrained, understanding this threshold is essential to prioritize resources and determine whether to accept, mitigate, or transfer high-impact, low-likelihood risks.
NEW QUESTION # 563
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:
Which of thefollowing should the analyst do first?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's accountexperienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Here's a breakdown of why disabling User1's account is the appropriate first step:
Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute- force attacks.
Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines
By addressing User1's account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access continuing during the investigation period.
NEW QUESTION # 564
During a forensic review of a cybersecurity incident, a security engineer collected a portion of the payload used by an attacker on a comprised web server Given the following portion of the code:
Which of the following best describes this incident?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The provided code snippet shows a script that captures the user's cookies and sends them to a remote server. This type of attack is characteristic of Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), specifically stored XSS, where the malicious script is stored on the target server (e.g., in a database) and executed in the context of users who visit the infected web page.
A . XSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attack: This involves tricking the user into performing actions on a different site without their knowledge but does not involve stealing cookies via script injection.
B . Command injection: This involves executing arbitrary commands on the host operating system, which is not relevant to the given JavaScript code.
C . Stored XSS: The provided code snippet matches the pattern of a stored XSS attack, where the script is injected into a web page, and when users visit the page, the script executes and sends the user's cookies to the attacker's server.
D . SQL injection: This involves injecting malicious SQL queries into the database and is unrelated to the given JavaScript code.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on XSS
"The Web Application Hacker's Handbook" by Dafydd Stuttard and Marcus Pinto
NEW QUESTION # 565
A security manager has written an incident response playbook for insider attacks and is ready to begin testing it. Which of the following should the manager conduct to test the playbook?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Threat emulation (also known as adversary or red-team simulation) involves deliberately mimicking insider tactics, techniques, and procedures to validate the playbook's controls and procedures in a controlled exercise. This approach directly tests whether the detection, containment, and response steps work as designed against realistic insider behaviors.
NEW QUESTION # 566
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