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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Threat Detection and Response | - Automated response actions and remediation - Incident detection and alert handling |
| Policy Configuration and Management | - Policy tuning and exclusions - Prevention and detection policies |
| Forensics and Investigation | - Event analysis and telemetry review - Endpoint investigation workflows |
| System Administration and Troubleshooting | - Troubleshooting common FortiEDR issues - System monitoring and health checks |
| FortiEDR Architecture and Components | - System architecture and deployment models - FortiEDR components overview (agents, management console, collectors) |
| Installation and Deployment | - Agent deployment and onboarding - Server and console installation requirements |
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NEW QUESTION # 23
Within the FortiEDR architecture, which component needs JumpBox capabilities to enable authenticated and controlled communication with FortiAnalyzer? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Core.
For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is "A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer." The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.
So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.
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NEW QUESTION # 24
What action does an on-premises reputation server take when it receives a hash request that is not found in its local database? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that for on-premises deployments, the on-premise reputation service requests missing hashes from the cloud reputation service . If a proxy is not enabled, it requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service through the manager nginx . If a proxy is enabled, the on-premises reputation service requests the missing hashes through the proxy.
So, when the local reputation database does not contain the requested hash, the on-premises reputation server does not ignore the request, wait for endpoint input, or automatically block the application. It queries the cloud reputation service for the missing hash reputation data.
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NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the exhibit:
You configured an execution prevention exclusion with both File Name = app.exe and Path = C:\Tools. What will FortiEDR do? (Choose one answer)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Exclude only app.exe when it is running from C:\Tools.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that the Exclusion Manager is used to define which processes, files, or domains are excluded from Security Policies monitoring. For Process Exclusions, FortiEDR does not inspect actions performed by specific processes, and those processes are identified by the attributes defined by the administrator.
The guide further explains that process/source attributes can include File Name, Path, Hash, and Signer. It also states that when an exclusion contains multiple conditions, an AND relationship exists between the conditions. If an OR relationship is required, a separate exclusion must be created.
In this exhibit, both conditions are selected:
File Name = app.exe
Path = C:\Tools
Because FortiEDR applies an AND relationship between multiple exclusion conditions, the exclusion applies only when both conditions match. Therefore, FortiEDR excludes app.exe only when it is located/running from C:\Tools.
Option A is wrong because no Signer condition is selected. Option C is wrong because that would apply if only the file name were used broadly. Option D is wrong because FortiEDR is not excluding every file in C:
\Tools; it is excluding the process that matches both the file name and path conditions.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
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