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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Cost of Capital and Valuation | - Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) - Bond and stock valuation basics |
| Risk and Return | - Portfolio risk and diversification - Expected return |
| Financial Statement Analysis | - Balance sheet and income statement interpretation - Cash flow analysis - Financial ratios |
| Time Value of Money | - Annuities and perpetuities - Present and future value calculations |
| Capital Budgeting | - Payback period analysis - Internal rate of return (IRR) - Net present value (NPV) |
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NEW QUESTION # 53
Why might investors choose to invest in junk bonds?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Junk bonds, also known as high-yield bonds, are issued by firms with lower credit ratings and therefore higher default risk. To compensate investors for this additional risk, these bonds offer higher interest rates than investment-grade bonds. From a financial management and portfolio perspective, investors may include junk bonds to enhance portfolio returns, particularly when they believe default risk is overstated or when economic conditions are favorable. Junk bonds do not guarantee returns and are not backed by government guarantees, making options A and D incorrect. They also do not consistently outperform equities, especially during periods of financial stress. Option B accurately reflects the risk- return tradeoff that underpins investment decisions in capital market theory: higher expected returns are associated with higher risk.
NEW QUESTION # 54
What does a high inventory turnover ratio indicate about a company's inventory management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Inventory turnover measures how many times a company sells and replaces its inventory during a given period. A high inventory turnover ratio generally indicates that inventory is being sold quickly and efficiently, minimizing holding costs such as storage, insurance, and obsolescence. From a financial management perspective, efficient inventory management improves cash flow by reducing capital tied up in unsold goods and shortens the cash conversion cycle. While an extremely high turnover could signal stockouts or lost sales, financial management texts typically interpret higher turnover-relative to industry norms-as a positive indicator of operational efficiency. Option B correctly reflects this standard interpretation.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which factor should be considered when valuing preferred stock?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preferred stock is generally valued based on its fixed dividend payment rather than on expected growth in dividends or significant capital appreciation. In most cases, preferred shares promise a stated dividend amount or a dividend based on a fixed rate applied to par value. Because these dividends are usually constant and do not grow like common stock dividends may, preferred stock is often valued using the perpetuity concept:
Value = Annual Preferred Dividend ÷ Required Rate of Return. This makes the fixed dividend rate the key factor in valuation. Choice B is incorrect because past price alone does not determine intrinsic value. Choice C is incorrect because preferred stock usually offers limited capital appreciation compared with common stock. Choice D is also incorrect because preferred dividends typically do not grow at a variable rate. From a financial management perspective, preferred stock is often viewed as a hybrid security, combining features of both debt and equity. Its valuation depends primarily on the stability and amount of the dividend stream and the return required by investors. Therefore, A is the correct answer because the fixed dividend rate is central to determining preferred stock value.
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NEW QUESTION # 56
What does a beta higher than 1.0 for a stock indicate about its systematic risk?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Beta measures a stock's sensitivity to movements in the overall market and represents its level of systematic (non-diversifiable) risk. A beta greater than 1.0 indicates that the stock tends to move more than the market in response to market-wide changes. For example, if the market increases by 1%, a stock with a beta of 1.2 is expected, on average, to increase by approximately 1.2%. Conversely, it would also decline more sharply during market downturns. From a capital market theory perspective, higher beta implies higher risk and therefore a higher required rate of return to compensate investors.
Financial managers use beta in the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to estimate the cost of equity.
Option B correctly describes the implication of a beta greater than one.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What is a primary goal of managing accounts receivable through credit policies?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary objective of accounts receivable management is to strike an optimal balance between increasing sales and maintaining healthy cash flows. Extending credit can stimulate demand and improve competitiveness, but excessive or poorly managed credit policies can lead to delayed cash inflows, higher bad debt losses, and increased financing costs. Financial management theory emphasizes evaluating credit standards, credit terms, and collection policies to ensure that the marginal benefit from additional sales exceeds the marginal cost of carrying receivables. These costs include opportunity costs of tied-up capital, administrative expenses, and default risk. Effective receivables management supports liquidity while preserving customer relationships. Option D accurately reflects this balanced objective, whereas the other options ignore either revenue growth or cash flow discipline.
NEW QUESTION # 58
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