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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Digital Forensics Fundamentals | - Disk and memory forensics concepts - Forensic data acquisition techniques - Evidence handling and chain of custody |
| Topic 2: Incident Response Process | - Containment, eradication, and recovery procedures - Incident identification and triage - Preparation and readiness for security incidents |
| Topic 3: Network Forensics and Traffic Analysis | - Packet capture and analysis - Network flow analysis using Cisco tools - Identifying malicious traffic patterns |
| Topic 4: Endpoint and Malware Analysis | - Endpoint telemetry analysis - Malware behavior identification - Use of Cisco endpoint security technologies |
| Topic 5: Security Monitoring and Cisco Technologies | - Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) - Log correlation and SIEM concepts - Cisco Secure Endpoint (AMP) usage |
>> Key Cisco 300-215 Concepts <<
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NEW QUESTION # 148
A SOC team identifies the presence of APT29. The threat actor gained access to the environment through a phishing email sent to the communications manager one year earlier. APT29 is also known to exploit vulnerabilities remotely to gain access to victims' systems. The SOC team takes the necessary actions and removes the backdoor. What is the next recommended step to protect the environment?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Removing the backdoor eradicates the known foothold, but it does not correct the entry control that failed.
Because the established initial-access vector was a phishing email, deploying email sandboxing directly reduces recurrence by detonating new or suspicious attachments in an isolated environment and assessing their behavior before users can open them. An antimalware sweep may support scoping, but signature-based scanning alone is weaker against a sophisticated actor and does not close the email-delivery gap. Threat intelligence improves awareness, and management reporting is necessary governance, yet neither control analyzes attachments at the point of entry. Cisco states that Secure Email can submit new and suspicious files for behavioral file analysis in a sandbox. The selection also aligns with CBRFIR Incident Response Techniques objectives 3.4 and 3.8: recommend post-incident action and the appropriate Cisco security solution for detection and prevention. Cisco Secure Email Gateway data sheet
NEW QUESTION # 149
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The alert clearly identifies ET SCAN DirBuster Web App Scan in Progress, referencingSID 2008186, which is a Snort signature that specifically detectsDirBusteractivity. DirBuster is a well-known tool used for brute- forcing hidden directories and files on web servers.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide and OWASP both identifydirectory brute-forcingas a reconnaissance technique to find unprotected or misconfigured endpoints on web applications, typically prior to launching deeper attacks.
Therefore, the correct interpretation of the alert is:
C). brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver.
NEW QUESTION # 150
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the indicator of compromise?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The STIX data structure shows apatternfield with this entry:
file:hashes.'SHA-256' = '3299f07bc0711b3587fe8a1c6bf3ee6cbcc14cb775f64b28a61d72ebcb8968d3' This value is aSHA-256 file hash, a well-knownindicator of compromise (IoC)for identifying malicious files.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
A). SHA256 file hash.
NEW QUESTION # 151
An engineer received a report of a suspicious email from an employee. The employee had already opened the attachment, which was an empty Word document. The engineer cannot identify any clear signs of compromise but while reviewing running processes, observes that PowerShell.exe was spawned by cmd.exe with a grandparent winword.exe process. What is the recommended action the engineer should take?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This behavior is consistent withmalicious macro activity. A PowerShell process being spawned fromwinword.exeviacmd.exestrongly indicates execution of an embedded script. Cisco recommends containment as a critical next step:
"Contain the threat as soon as malicious behavior is observed to prevent lateral movement or additional compromise".
NEW QUESTION # 152
An engineer investigates persistence techniques used by attackers and must identify which programs are configured to start during system boot. Which Sysinternals tool should be used?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Autorunsc is the command-line version of Microsoft Sysinternals Autoruns. It enumerates programs and components configured to execute automatically during boot or logon, including Startup-folder entries, Run and RunOnce registry values, services, drivers, scheduled startup locations, Winlogon components, and other extensibility points commonly abused for persistence. This breadth makes it more suitable for forensic collection and scripted analysis than msconfig, which is primarily a system-configuration interface. regedit can inspect individual registry locations but does not comprehensively enumerate every autostart mechanism.
startup is not the relevant Sysinternals utility. Investigators should export the results, preserve timestamps and hashes, and validate suspicious entries rather than deleting them immediately. Cisco's Forensics Techniques objective 2.6 requires recognition of Sysinternals tools, while Microsoft confirms that Autorunsc is Autoruns' command-line equivalent and reports programs configured for boot or login. Microsoft Sysinternals Autoruns
NEW QUESTION # 153
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