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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 2
  • Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.
Topic 3
  • General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.
Topic 4
  • Security Architecture: Here, you'll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.
Topic 5
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you'll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q574-Q579):

NEW QUESTION # 574
Which of the following is most important to maintain when it comes to evidence during a digital forensic investigation?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Chain of custody is the most important item to maintain for forensic evidence. It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, where it was stored, who accessed it, how it was transferred, and whether its integrity was preserved. Without a clear chain of custody, evidence can be challenged because there is no reliable proof that it was not altered, mishandled, contaminated, or replaced. Change management is important for production system modifications, not forensic evidence handling. Availability matters for system operations, but forensic work prioritizes integrity and admissibility. Reporting is required later to communicate findings, but reports are only credible if the underlying evidence has been preserved through proper custody controls.


NEW QUESTION # 575
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 576
A government worker secretly copies classified files that contain defense tactics information to an external drive. The government worker then gives the external drive to a corrupt organization. Which of the following best describes the motivation of the worker?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The act described is espionage, where classified information is stolen and provided to adversaries or unauthorized parties, usually for political, military, or strategic advantage.
Data exfiltration (B) is the technical act of stealing data but doesn't specify motivation. Financial gain (C) or blackmail (D) could be motivations but are not clearly indicated here.
Espionage is a classic threat actor motivation outlined in the Threats domain#6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide#.


NEW QUESTION # 577
The Cruel Information Security Officer (CISO) asks a security analyst to install an OS update to a production VM that has a 99% uptime SLA. The CISO tells me analyst the installation must be done as quickly as possible. Which of the following courses of action should the security analyst take first?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Before applying any updates or patches to a production VM, especially one with a 99% uptime SLA, it is crucial to first take a snapshot of the VM. This snapshot serves as a backup that can be quickly restored in case the update causes any issues, ensuring that the system can be returned to its previous state without violating the SLA. This step mitigates risk and is a standard best practice in change management for critical systems.


NEW QUESTION # 578
Which of the following is used to protect a computer from viruses, malware, and Trojans being installed and moving laterally across the network?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. EDR can help to detect and prevent malicious software, such as viruses, malware, and Trojans, from infecting the endpoints and spreading across the network. EDR can also provide visibility and response capabilities to contain and remediate threats. EDR is different from IDS, which is a network-based technology that monitors and alerts on network traffic anomalies. EDR is also different from ACL, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources. EDR is also different from NAC, which is a technology that enforces policies on the network access of devices based on their identity and compliance status.


NEW QUESTION # 579
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