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| Certification Vendor: | EC-Council |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | EC-Council Digital Forensics Essentials (DFE) |
| Exam Number: | 112-57 |
| Exam Format: | Multiple Choice |
| Passing Score: | 70% |
| Related Certifications: | EC-Council Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (CHFI) EC-Council Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Real Exam Qty: | 60 |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Exam Price: | $250 (USD) |
| Sample Questions: | EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online Proctored / Testing Center |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites; basic understanding of IT and networking recommended. Ideal for beginners in digital forensics. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.eccouncil.org/digital-forensics-essentials/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 52
Bob, a forensic specialist at a newly established NGO, discovered a security loophole in the NGO's web application, which unintentionally reveals early enrolled NGO members' biodata to attackers. Bob immediately employed a content filtering mechanism to protect all the NGO's data sources and prevent further damage.
Identify the web application threat identified by Bob in the above scenario.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario describes a web application thatunintentionally reveals sensitive member biodatato attackers.
This is a classic case ofinformation leakage, where confidential or private data becomes exposed due to poor access control, improper output handling, verbose error messages, misconfigured endpoints, insecure direct object references, or unintended exposure through pages, APIs, backups, or logs. In forensic and web security documentation, information leakage is defined by theunauthorized disclosure of data, even if the attacker does not alter the system. The key indicator here is that the application is "revealing" biodata-meaning confidentiality is breached.
Bob's response-using acontent filtering mechanism-also aligns with mitigating data exposure. Content filtering can prevent sensitive fields from being returned, mask personally identifiable information, restrict responses based on user role, and sanitize outputs before they leave the server.
The other options do not match the described impact.Buffer overflowis a low-level memory corruption vulnerability, typically associated with native code execution rather than accidental biodata exposure.
Authentication hijackinginvolves taking over sessions/credentials, andcookie poisoninginvolves manipulating cookie values to gain privileges or alter behavior-neither is explicitly indicated. Therefore, the identified threat isInformation leakage (B).
NEW QUESTION # 53
Williams, a forensic specialist, was tasked with performing a static malware analysis on a suspect system in an organization. For this purpose, Williams used an automated tool to perform a string search and saved all the identified strings in a text file. After analyzing the strings, he determined all the harmful actions that were performed by malware.
Identify the tool employed by Williams in the above scenario.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Instatic malware analysis, one of the quickest ways to infer capability is to extract and reviewstringsembedded in a binary. Strings frequently reveal command-and-control domains/IPs, mutex names, file paths, registry keys, user-agent values, suspicious commands (PowerShell/cmd), API names, error messages, encryption markers, and configuration fragments. Investigators often use automated utilities to extract these readable artifacts andexport them to a text filefor later triage, keyword searching, and correlation with other evidence (network logs, endpoint telemetry, and threat intel).
Among the provided options,ResourcesExtractbest matches this workflow. It is designed to extract embedded content from executable files-particularly Windows PE resources-and can export extracted textual items (including resource strings/strings tables and related embedded text) into external files for analysis. This aligns with "performed a string search and saved all the identified strings in a text file." The other choices do not fit:R-Drive Imageis a disk imaging/backup tool;Ezvidis for screen recording; andSnagitis for screenshots/screen capture. They do not perform automated extraction of strings from malware binaries as a static-analysis step. Therefore, the correct answer isResourcesExtract (B).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Bob, a professional hacker, targeted an organization to launch attacks. Bob gathered information such as network topology and a list of live hosts. Based on the collected information, he launched further attacks over the organization's network.
Identify the type of network attack Bob initiated on the target organization in the above scenario.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The activity described-collectingnetwork topologydetails and compiling alist of live hosts-matches the reconnaissance phase commonly referred to asenumeration. In digital forensics and incident response documentation, enumeration is the systematic process of discovering and extracting information about a target environment to support later exploitation. It typically follows (or overlaps with) scanning and includes identifying active IP addresses, reachable systems, open ports/services, device roles, OS fingerprints, domain information, shared resources, user/group details, and routing or segmentation clues that reveal how the network is structured.
This information is then used to plan "further attacks," such as targeting exposed services, choosing exploit paths, locating high-value systems, and selecting lateral movement routes. From a forensic standpoint, enumeration attempts often leave traces in firewall logs, IDS alerts, and endpoint artifacts (e.g., bursts of connection attempts across many hosts/ports, ICMP echo sweeps, ARP discovery on local segments, and repeated DNS queries).
The other options do not fit:data modificationinvolves altering data integrity;session hijackingtargets active sessions/tokens; andbuffer overflowis an exploitation technique against vulnerable software, not the information-gathering step described. Therefore, the correct answer isEnumeration (B)
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following standards and criteria version of SWGDE mandates that any action with the potential to alter, damage, or destroy any aspect of original evidence must be performed by qualified persons in a forensically sound manner?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The statement in the question matchesSWGDE Principle 1, Standards and Criteria 1.7, which explicitly requires thatany action that could alter, damage, or destroy original digital evidence must be performed by qualified personnel in a forensically sound manner. In digital forensics doctrine, this requirement exists because digital evidence is highly fragile: routine interactions (booting a system, opening a file, connecting storage, running commands) can change timestamps, overwrite unallocated space, modify logs, or trigger encryption/key rotation. SWGDE's emphasis on "qualified persons" and "forensically sound manner" aligns with core evidentiary expectations: minimizing changes to original media, using controlled and repeatable methods (e.g., write-blocking, validated imaging, documented procedures), and ensuring actions are defensible under scrutiny.
Options 1.1, 1.3, and 1.5 relate to broader quality and procedural requirements (quality systems, SOP review, appropriate tools), but they do not contain the specific mandate about potentially altering original evidence.
The exact phrasing about alteration/damage/destruction and qualified handling is associated withStandards and Criteria 1.7, makingBthe correct choice.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following network protocols creates secure tunneling through which content obfuscation can be achieved?
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell)is specifically designed to provide anencrypted channelover an untrusted network. In digital forensics and incident response, SSH is well known for supportingtunneling/port forwarding, where traffic for another protocol (for example, HTTP, database connections, or remote desktop) is encapsulated inside an SSH session. Because the SSH session encrypts payload data (and can also protect authentication and command content), the tunneled traffic becomesobfuscated to network monitoring toolsthat can only see metadata such as source/destination IPs, port numbers (often TCP/22), timing, and byte counts. This capability is frequently discussed in forensic references as a mechanism that can hinder content inspection and complicate attribution of user actions purely from packet payload analysis.
By contrast,SNMPis primarily for network management and monitoring, not secure tunneling.ARPresolves IP- to-MAC addresses on local networks and does not provide encryption or tunneling.UDPis a transport protocol that can carry data for many applications but provides no built-in security or tunneling features by itself.
Therefore, the protocol that creates secure tunneling enabling content obfuscation isSSH (C).
event logs) to establish user intent and sequence of actions. Therefore, the correct option isBrowsingHistoryView (B).
NEW QUESTION # 57
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