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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Security Operations | 33% | - Automation and orchestration
- 1. SOAR platforms and workflows
- 2. Scripting and automation tools
- Threat intelligence
- 1. Indicators of compromise (IOCs) and indicators of attack (IOAs)
- 2. Intelligence cycle and analysis
- 3. Sources and types of threat intelligence
- Security monitoring concepts and tools
- 1. SIEM deployment, configuration, and use
- 2. Log management and analysis
- 3. Endpoint security monitoring
- 4. Network traffic analysis
|
| Reporting and Communication | 17% | - Reporting requirements and standards
- 1. Technical vs. executive reporting
- 2. Compliance and regulatory reporting
- Security awareness and training
- 1. Developing security content
- 2. Delivering training and awareness programs
- Data visualization and presentation
- 1. Creating effective security reports
- 2. Communicating risks and recommendations
|
| Incident Response Management | 20% | - Digital forensics basics
- 1. Evidence collection and preservation
- 2. Forensic analysis techniques
- Incident response lifecycle
- 1. Post-incident activities
- 2. Preparation and planning
- 3. Detection and analysis
- 4. Containment, eradication, and recovery
- Coordination and communication
- 1. Internal and external stakeholder coordination
- 2. Legal and regulatory considerations
|
| Vulnerability Management | 30% | - Cloud and virtual environment vulnerabilities
- 1. Cloud security posture management
- 2. Container and virtualization security
- Vulnerability assessment processes
- 1. Configuration and compliance scanning
- 2. Scanning tools and methodologies
- 3. Vulnerability validation and prioritization
- Risk assessment and mitigation
- 1. Patch management and system hardening
- 2. Remediation strategies and controls
- 3. Risk frameworks and analysis
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q326-Q331):
NEW QUESTION # 326
A vulnerability scan shows the following vulnerabilities in the environment:

At the same time, the following security advisory was released:
"A zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10 may be affecting your web server. The vendor is working on a patch or workaround." Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
- A. Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
- B. Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.
- C. Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
- D. Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the security analyst is presented with multiple vulnerabilities, including a critical zero-day vulnerability affecting the web server with a CVSS score of 10. The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized method for rating IT vulnerabilities, with a score of 10 indicating the highest severity.
Option A: Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
Correct Choice: Given the critical nature of a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10, immediate action is warranted to prevent potential exploitation. Shutting down the affected web server reduces the attack surface and mitigates the risk until a patch or workaround is available. This aligns with incident response best practices, where containment is a priority to prevent further damage.
Option B: Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
Incorrect Choice: While monitoring for patches is essential, it is a reactive approach. In the case of a zero-day vulnerability with active exploitation potential, waiting for a patch without implementing immediate protective measures exposes the organization to significant risk.
Option C: Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.
Incorrect Choice: Re-scanning may confirm the vulnerability's presence but does not address the immediate threat. Action to mitigate the risk should take precedence over verification, especially when the vulnerability is known and critical.
Option D: Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
Incorrect Choice: Communicating with the web security team is important; however, in the face of a critical zero-day vulnerability, immediate action (such as shutting down the affected asset) is necessary before addressing other vulnerabilities.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Exam Objective 3.2: "Given a scenario, perform incident response activities." This includes containment strategies to address active threats effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 327
Which of the following best explains the importance of the implementation of a secure software development life cycle in a company with an internal development team?
- A. Improves the agile process and decreases the amount of tests before the final deployment
- B. Increases the product price by using the implementation as a piece of marketing
- C. Transfers the responsibility for security flaws to the vulnerability management team
- D. Decreases the risks of the software usage and complies with regulatory requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) integrates security measures at each stage of development to reduce vulnerabilities and improve the overall security of the software. This is essential for minimizing risks related to software usage and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements, which is particularly important for organizations handling sensitive data. As per CompTIA standards, a Secure SDLC helps prevent security breaches and protects both the organization and its users from potential harm. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the primary goals of a Secure SDLC, which primarily centers on risk reduction and regulatory compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 328
The SOC received a threat intelligence notification indicating that an employee's credentials were found on the dark web. The user's web and log-in activities were reviewed for malicious or anomalous connections, data uploads/downloads, and exploits. A review of the controls confirmed multifactor authentication was enabled. Which of the following should be done first to mitigate impact to the business networks and assets?
- A. Communicate the compromised credentials to the user.
- B. Review and ensure privileges assigned to the user's account reflect least privilege.
- C. Perform an ad hoc AV scan on the user's laptop.
- D. Perform a forced password reset.
- E. Lower the thresholds for SOC alerting of suspected malicious activity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first and most urgent step to mitigate the impact of compromised credentials on the dark web is to perform a forced password reset for the affected user. This will prevent the cybercriminals from using the stolen credentials to access the company's network and systems. Multifactor authentication is a good security measure, but it is not foolproof and can be bypassed by sophisticated attackers. Therefore, changing the password as soon as possible is the best practice to reduce the risk of a data breach or other cyber attack123 References: 1: How to monitor the dark web for compromised employee credentials 2: How to prevent corporate credentials ending up on the dark web 3: Data Breach Prevention: Identifying Leaked Credentials on the Dark Web
NEW QUESTION # 329
A SIEM alert is triggered based on execution of a suspicious one-liner on two workstations in the organization's environment. An analyst views the details of these events below:

Which of the following statements best describes the intent of the attacker, based on this one-liner?
- A. Attacker is attempting to install persistence mechanisms on the target machine.
- B. Attacker is escalating privileges via JavaScript.
- C. Attacker is executing PowerShell script "AccessToken.psr.
- D. Attacker is utilizing custom malware to download an additional script.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The one-liner script is utilizing JavaScript to execute a PowerShell command that downloads and runs a script from an external source, indicating the use of custom malware to download an additional script. References:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.
NEW QUESTION # 330
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-

Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. RCE
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. ICMP tunneling
- D. Smurf attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of ...3
NEW QUESTION # 331
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