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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Physician Activities | 50% | - Professional Behaviours - Management - Communication - Psychosocial Aspects |
| Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Assessment and Diagnosis - Chronic Care - Acute Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
Medical Council of Canada MCCQE認定試験の難しさで近年にほとんどの受験生は資格認定試験に合格しなっかたと良く知られます。だから、我々社の有効な試験問題集は長年にわたりMedical Council of Canada MCCQE認定資格試験問題集作成に取り組んだIT専門家によって書いてます。実際の試験に表示される質問と正確な解答はあなたのMedical Council of Canada MCCQE認定資格試験合格を手伝ってあげます。
質問 # 86
A 16-month-old boy is brought to your office because of red, itchy and crusted patches on his cheeks and chin. Physical examination also reveals similar patches in the flexor creases of both arms. The groin and axillae regions are clear. Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to this condition?
正解:B
解説:
This child's presentation is classic for atopic dermatitis (eczema) : pruritic, erythematous, crusted patches involving the cheeks in infants and the flexural creases in toddlers. Sparing of the groin and axillae is typical.
MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing age-specific distribution and identifying risk factors. The strongest contributor is a family history of atopy (e.g., asthma, allergic rhinitis, eczema), reflecting a genetic predisposition involving impaired skin barrier function and immune dysregulation (often associated with filaggrin mutations).
Vaccination (e.g., MMR) does not cause eczema. Oral amoxicillin may trigger a transient rash but would not produce chronic pruritic flexural dermatitis. Early introduction of cereals is not an established cause of atopic dermatitis. Varicella-zoster infection produces a vesicular rash in various stages, not chronic flexural eczema.
Thus, a family history of atopic reactions is the most important contributing factor to this child's condition.
質問 # 87
You are seeing a 78-year-old man for follow-up of metastatic cholangiocarcinoma diagnosed 8 months ago and currently being treated with thermotherapy. He has just completed his 2nd cycle and reports frequently feeling hopeless, worthless, and helpless, with no sense of a positive future. He states he is turning away invitations to socialize with family and friends. He feels like sleeping all the time and reports no appetite.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
正解:D
解説:
This patient exhibits classic symptoms of a major depressive episode (MDE): anhedonia, low mood, social withdrawal, feelings of worthlessness, hypersomnia, and loss of appetite. These symptoms are persistent and pervasive beyond what is typical in grief.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Depressive Disorders" Section:
"MDE is characterized by #5 symptoms present nearly every day for #2 weeks including low mood, anhedonia, sleep/appetite disturbances, low energy, feelings of worthlessness, and suicidal ideation. It must cause significant impairment in functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish between grief, adjustment disorders, and major depression in patients with chronic illness and initiate appropriate management." Normal grief (A) may involve sadness and crying but does not involve pervasive hopelessness or worthlessness. Side effects of chemotherapy (C) and hepatic encephalopathy (E) have other specific physical signs. Brain metastasis (D) would more likely present with focal neurologic symptoms or cognitive impairment.
質問 # 88
A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and anorexia. He was tackled in a football game yesterday. He reports a 3-week history of sore throat and fatigue. Vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 95/45 mm Hg
Heart rate: 96/min
Temperature: 37.6°C
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
正解:C
解説:
This patient presents with hypotension, diffuse abdominal pain, and a history of contact sports injury with preceding symptoms of infectious mononucleosis (sore throat, fatigue). The spleen is commonly enlarged in mononucleosis, making it vulnerable to rupture after even minor trauma.
Toronto Notes 2023 - General Surgery and Infectious Diseases Sections:
"Splenic rupture is a known complication of mononucleosis, particularly after trauma. Symptoms may include diffuse abdominal pain, hypotension, and signs of hemorrhagic shock." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 84-1: Abdominal Trauma):
"Candidates should identify splenic rupture as a cause of hypotension and abdominal pain following blunt abdominal trauma, especially in patients with splenomegaly." Appendicitis (B) would present with localized right lower quadrant pain. Pneumonia (C) and pyelonephritis (D) would present with respiratory or urinary symptoms. Ruptured duodenum (E) is much less likely without specific trauma to that region or signs of peritonitis.
質問 # 89
A 55-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with a 2-day history of confusion. Onexamination, you note a sixth nerve palsy and a horizontal nystagmus. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
正解:E
解説:
Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:
* Confusion
* Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)
* Ataxia
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology and Psychiatry, "Wernicke Encephalopathy" Section:
"Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration." MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):
"Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement." Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.
質問 # 90
A 25-year-old nulligravida woman presents after trying to conceive for 2 years without success. She is healthy, with regular menstrual periods. She denies any unusual hair growth, weight changes, or breast discharge. She gets occasional outbreaks of acne. Blood work done with her next menstrual period produces the following results:
Follicle-stimulating hormone, follicular phase: 6.2 U/L (5.0-20.0) on day 3 of menstrual cycle Luteinizing hormone, follicular phase: 6 U/L (5-22) on day 3 of menstrual cycle Estradiol: 163 pmol/L (50-200) on day 15 of menstrual cycle Thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone): 2.5 mU/L (0.4-5.0) Prolactin: 40 µg/L (4-30) Given the results of her blood work, which one of the following is the best next step?
正解:C
解説:
This patient meets the definition of infertility (no conception after 12 months; here 2 years). Her day-3 FSH
/LH and mid-cycle estradiol are within expected ranges, and TSH is normal, making thyroid disease unlikely.
The key abnormality is elevated prolactin (40 µg/L) . MCCQE objectives emphasize identifying reversible endocrine causes of infertility: hyperprolactinemia can impair fertility by disrupting hypothalamic GnRH pulsatility and ovulatory function, and treatment improves pregnancy rates. The appropriate next management is a dopamine agonist (e.g., bromocriptine) to lower prolactin and restore normal reproductive axis function.
Pituitary MRI is generally reserved for marked or persistent elevations suggestive of prolactinoma (often much higher levels) or when there are neurologic symptoms (e.g., headaches, visual field defects). IVF is not first-line when a treatable endocrine abnormality is present. Mammography is unrelated to mild hyperprolactinemia without breast findings. Treating the elevated prolactin addresses a likely contributor before proceeding to more invasive fertility interventions.
質問 # 91
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