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| Certification Vendor: | International Institute of Business Analysis (IIBA) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | IIBA Certificate in Cybersecurity Analysis (CCA) |
| Exam Number: | IIBA-CCA |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Recommended Training: | IIBA Cybersecurity Analysis Learning Resources |
| Exam Registration: | IIBA Certification Portal |
| Sample Questions: | IIBA IIBA-CCA Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online, typically computer-based assessment (exact delivery details depend on IIBA exam provider) |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites published; familiarity with business analysis concepts is recommended. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.iiba.org/business-analysis-certifications/certificate-in-cybersecurity-analysis-cca/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 32
What is a Recovery Point Objective RPO?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Recovery Point Objective defines the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It answers the question: "After an outage or disruptive event, how far back in time can we restore data and still meet business needs?" If the RPO is 4 hours, the organization is stating it can tolerate losing up to 4 hours of data changes, meaning backups, replication, journaling, or snapshots must be frequent enough to restore to a point no older than 4 hours before the incident. That is exactly what option A describes: the specific point in time prior to the outage to which data must be recovered.
RPO is often paired with Recovery Time Objective but they are not the same. RTO focuses on how quickly service must be restored, while RPO focuses on how much data the organization can afford to lose. Options B, C, and D all describe time-to-restore concepts, which align with RTO or related recovery targets rather than RPO.
In operational resilience and disaster recovery planning, RPO drives technical design choices: backup frequency, replication methods, storage and retention strategies, and validation testing. Lower RPO values generally require more robust and often more expensive solutions, such as near-real-time replication and strong change capture controls. RPO also influences incident response and recovery procedures to ensure restoration steps reliably meet the agreed data-loss tolerance.
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NEW QUESTION # 33
Violations of the EU's General Data Protection Regulations GDPR can result in:
Answer: A
Explanation:
The GDPR establishes a regulatory penalty framework intended to make privacy and data-protection obligations enforceable across organizations of any size. Under GDPR, the most severe administrative fines can reach up to €20 million or up to 4% of the organization's total worldwide annual turnover of the preceding financial year, whichever is higher. That "whichever is greater" clause is critical: it prevents large enterprises from treating privacy violations as a minor cost of doing business and ensures the sanction can scale with the organization's economic size and risk impact.
Cybersecurity governance and risk documents typically emphasize GDPR as a driver for enterprise risk management because the consequences extend beyond monetary fines. A confirmed violation often triggers regulatory investigations, mandatory corrective actions, and potential restrictions on processing activities. Organizations may also face indirect impacts such as breach notification costs, legal claims from affected individuals, reputational harm, loss of customer trust, and increased oversight by regulators and auditors.
From a controls perspective, GDPR penalties reinforce the need for strong security and privacy-by-design practices: data minimization, lawful processing, documented purposes, retention controls, encryption where appropriate, access control and least privilege, monitoring and incident response readiness, and evidence-based accountability through policies, records, and audit trails. Selecting option C correctly reflects GDPR's maximum fine structure and its risk-based deterrence model.
NEW QUESTION # 34
SSL/TLS encryption capability is provided by:
Answer: C
Explanation:
SSL and its successor TLS are cryptographic protocols designed to provide secure communications over untrusted networks. The encryption capability comes from the TLS protocol suite, which defines how two endpoints negotiate security settings, authenticate, exchange keys, and protect data as it travels between them. During the TLS handshake, the endpoints agree on a cipher suite, establish shared session keys using secure key exchange methods, and then use symmetric encryption and integrity checks to protect application data against eavesdropping and tampering. Because TLS specifies these mechanisms and the sequence of steps, it is accurate to say that encryption capability is provided by protocols.
Certificates are important but they are not the encryption mechanism itself. Digital certificates primarily support authentication and trust by binding a public key to an identity and enabling verification through a trusted certificate authority chain. Certificates help prevent impersonation and man-in-the-middle attacks by allowing clients to validate the server's identity, and in mutual TLS they can validate both parties. However, certificates alone do not define how encryption is negotiated or applied; TLS does.
Passwords are unrelated to transport encryption; they are an authentication secret and do not provide session encryption for network traffic. "Controls" is too general: SSL/TLS is indeed a security control, but the question asks specifically what provides the encryption capability. That capability is implemented and standardized by the SSL/TLS protocols, which orchestrate key establishment and encrypted communication.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What is a risk owner?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk owner is the individual who is accountable for a specific risk being properly managed to an acceptable level. Accountability means the risk owner has the authority and obligation to ensure the risk is assessed, an appropriate treatment decision is made, and the organization follows through-whether that decision is to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept the risk. In many governance models, the risk owner is typically a business or technology leader who "owns" the process, asset, or outcome most affected by the risk, and who can commit resources or approve changes needed to address it.
This is different from the person who performs the mitigation work. A risk owner may delegate tasks to control owners, engineers, or project teams, but they remain accountable for ensuring actions are completed, deadlines are met, residual risk is understood, and exceptions are documented and approved according to policy. The risk owner is also the person who should review changes in risk conditions over time, such as new vulnerabilities, changes in threat activity, or business/process changes that alter impact.
Option C describes an implementer or control owner, not necessarily the accountable party. Option D is simply the discoverer of the risk, and option B is incorrect because risks are often created by circumstances, design choices, or external factors rather than a single person.
NEW QUESTION # 36
What is an external audit?
Answer: B
Explanation:
An external audit is an independent evaluation performed by a party outside the organization to determine whether security-related activities, controls, and evidence meet defined requirements. Those requirements are typically drawn from laws and regulations, contractual obligations, and recognized standards or control frameworks. The defining characteristics are independence and attestation: the auditor is not part of the operational team being assessed and provides an objective conclusion about compliance or control effectiveness.
Unlike a vulnerability-focused review (often called a security assessment or technical audit) that primarily seeks weaknesses to remediate, an external audit emphasizes whether controls are designed appropriately, implemented consistently, and operating effectively over time. External auditors usually test governance processes, risk management practices, policies, access control procedures, change management, logging and monitoring, incident response readiness, and evidence of periodic reviews. They also validate documentation and sampling records to confirm that what is written is actually performed.
Option B describes an internal assurance activity, such as self-assessment or internal audit preparation, where the security team checks its own implementation. Option C is closer to a financial or procurement review and is not the typical definition of an external security audit. Therefore, the best answer is the one that clearly captures an independent party reviewing security activities to ensure compliance with established criteria
NEW QUESTION # 37
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