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NEW QUESTION # 10
An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In MSSP-style ACO financial reconciliation, performance is evaluated against a benchmark (expected costs). Here, the ACO's actual spending ($52M) exceeds the expected benchmark ($50M) by $2M, meaning the ACO generated shared losses rather than savings. In risk-bearing ACO arrangements, when costs exceed the benchmark and the ACO is in a track that includes downside risk, the organization may owe CMS a portion of those losses. The shared savings/loss rate (50% in this scenario) represents the percentage of the difference from the benchmark that the ACO shares with CMS, assuming applicable thresholds are met. Thus, instead of receiving a shared savings payment, the ACO would be accountable to pay back a share of the excess spending (conceptually 50% of the $2M overage, if all model requirements are satisfied). Option D is not correct because reconciliation is typically performed on a performance-year basis rather than only at the end of the full agreement period, and option C is not how MSSP eligibility works.
NEW QUESTION # 11
A 67-year-old male patient has been seen by a PCP multiple times this year. Diagnoses reported are diabetes with nephropathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; diabetes with retinopathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; atrial fibrillation with an HCC weight of 0.299, and a demographic risk factor weight of 0.332. Which of the following is this patient's final RAF score for these diagnoses?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The patient's RAF is calculated by adding the applicable HCC weights plus the demographic factor, but only after applying the HCC model's hierarchy rules. In outpatient risk adjustment education (as emphasized in ACDIS-based training), certain condition groups are hierarchical-meaning multiple related diagnoses in the same hierarchy do not "stack." Instead, only the highest-ranked HCC in that disease group contributes to the RAF. Here, "diabetes with nephropathy" and "diabetes with retinopathy" both carry the same HCC weight (0.166) and fall within the diabetes complication hierarchy, so they do not add together; only one 0.166 value is counted. Atrial fibrillation contributes separately (0.299), and the demographic risk factor contributes (0.332). Therefore, the final RAF is 0.166 + 0.299 + 0.332 = 0.797. This illustrates why outpatient CDI focuses on documenting all clinically supported conditions for care accuracy, while understanding that some related diagnoses won't increase RAF beyond the highest applicable HCC in that hierarchy.
NEW QUESTION # 12
The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI and coding education, selecting the correct E/M code starts with identifying the encounter category (e.g., office/outpatient vs inpatient/observation vs ED) and whether the patient is new or established, because these define the applicable CPT code range. Next, the level of service is selected within that range based on the documentation supporting the required elements for that code family. For most E/M services, "site of service" (place/setting) and "new vs established" are foundational code-selection drivers, while "level" is determined by the record's support for the applicable leveling methodology (commonly medical decision making and, when allowed/appropriate, time). Time can be a valid leveling method for many office/outpatient E/M visits, but it is not universally the basis for the majority of E/M services across all categories; it is an alternative pathway when documentation supports it. Physician specialty and patient age do not define the majority of E/M code selection. Therefore, the best overall statement is new/established status + site of service + level of service.
NEW QUESTION # 13
A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pulmonary rales (crackles), radiographic pulmonary edema, and peripheral (ankle) edema together strongly suggest a systemic volume overload state, most classically due to heart failure. In ambulatory CDI chart review, these findings function as clinical indicators that drive the provider's diagnostic reasoning and typically prompt further evaluation of heart failure type and status (e.g., acute vs chronic, systolic vs diastolic, preserved vs reduced EF), along with assessment of severity and potential decompensation. Providers commonly correlate these indicators with additional data such as weight gain trends, BNP, echocardiogram findings, medication adherence (diuretics), and signs of congestion to determine whether the patient is experiencing a heart failure exacerbation requiring treatment adjustments. While pleural effusion may coexist and pneumonia can cause rales, the presence of pulmonary edema on chest x-ray plus bilateral ankle edema points more directly to a cardiac/volume etiology than an isolated infectious process. Pulmonary hypertension may contribute to dyspnea and edema but does not most directly explain pulmonary edema on imaging in the same way. Therefore, heart failure is the most likely condition to be evaluated further.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?
Answer: C
Explanation:
To support a query for alcohol dependence in remission, outpatient CDI practice looks for indicators that reflect a documented history of dependence plus evidence the patient is actively maintaining sobriety or being followed for recovery status. Attendance at AA meetings together with a documented history of excessive alcohol use is a strong, direct indicator of recovery efforts and ongoing monitoring of a prior substance use disorder. This combination supports clarifying whether the provider intends to diagnose alcohol dependence in remission (versus current dependence, use without dependence, or no current disorder). By contrast, cirrhosis and elevated liver enzymes (option A) can be caused by many etiologies and do not, by themselves, establish dependence or remission status. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention (option D) are nonspecific and may suggest acute illness or liver disease but are not specific to remission. Occasional social drinking with recreational drug use (option C) suggests current substance use and would not support "in remission" without additional documentation. Therefore, option B best supports a remission-related query.
NEW QUESTION # 15
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