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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Leader (Manager)
|
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NEW QUESTION # 39
A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, presents to Labour and Delivery with regular contractions at approximately 24 weeks' gestation. As you review her prenatal records, which one of the following is the most reliable way of establishing gestational age?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Accurate determination of gestational age is essential, particularly in suspected preterm labour at 24 weeks.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-trimester ultrasound , specifically measurement of the crown-rump length (CRL) at 8-12 weeks , is the most reliable method for dating a pregnancy. In early gestation, biological variation in fetal size is minimal, making CRL highly accurate (±3-5 days).
Dating by last menstrual period (LMP) is less reliable due to recall error, irregular cycles, or ovulation variability. Second-trimester ultrasound provides reasonable accuracy but is less precise than first-trimester CRL (±7-10 days). Third-trimester ultrasound is the least accurate for dating because fetal growth variation increases significantly (±2-3 weeks). Symphysis-fundal height is useful for monitoring growth trends but not for precise dating.
In preterm labour management, correct gestational age influences decisions about corticosteroids, magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection, and neonatal resuscitation planning. Therefore, first-trimester CRL measurement is the gold standard for establishing gestational age.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care" Section:
"Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
"Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries." A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A 35-year-old man comes to your office with a history of headaches that last 1 hour and are relieved by 1000 mg of acetaminophen. These headaches, which started 6 months ago after he got his first job as a lawyer, occur regularly. The patient wants a computed tomography scan of his head to rule out a tumour. Physical examination reveals no abnormality. Review of systems does not contribute any positive findings. Which one of the following is the best management?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient's headache is consistent with tension-type or stress-related headache. The symptoms are mild, responsive to over-the-counter medications, and without red flags (neurologic signs, worsening pattern, nocturnal pain). Reassurance is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology, "Headache" Section:
"In the absence of red flags (e.g., sudden onset, focal deficits, age >50, worsening pattern), reassurance is the best course. Tension headaches are often related to stress and improve with lifestyle modification and simple analgesia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-6: Neurologic Symptoms):
"Candidates should recognize benign headache patterns and avoid unnecessary investigations." CT head (B) is not indicated. Stronger analgesics (D) may cause rebound headache. Specialist or psychiatric referrals (A, E) are premature.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of fever and rigors. He has sickle cell anemia. On examination, his vital signs include the following:
Heart rate
110/min (60-100)
Respiratory rate
20/min (12-18)
Temperature
38.8 °C, oral (36.5-37.5)
Which one of the following places this patient at risk for sepsis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Patients with sickle cell anemia often develop functional asplenia due to repeated splenic infarction. The spleen plays a critical role in clearing encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. Functional asplenia significantly increases the risk of overwhelming sepsis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology, "Sickle Cell Disease":
"Functional asplenia is common in sickle cell disease and increases the risk for sepsis due to impaired clearance of encapsulated bacteria." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-2: Hematology):
"Candidates must recognize that patients with functional asplenia are at increased risk for sepsis and require prompt evaluation for fever." Neutrophil dysfunction (B) and immunoglobulin deficiency (C) are not typical features of sickle cell anemia.
Chronic anemia (D) and iron overload (E) do not directly increase sepsis risk.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A 60-year-old man has a strong family history of aortic aneurysms. Screening abdominal ultrasonography reveals an incidental <1 cm mass in his left kidney. Computed tomography confirms that the mass is consistent with renal adenocarcinoma. Which one of the following is the most appropriate step in management?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
For small renal masses (<4 cm), partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery) is the standard of care in patients who are surgical candidates. It preserves renal function and provides oncologic control.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology / Oncology:
"Small renal tumors <4 cm should be treated with partial nephrectomy. Active surveillance or ablation may be alternatives in poor surgical candidates." MCCQE1 Objectives (Urology > 59-2: Renal Masses):
"Candidates must manage small renal tumors with nephron-sparing surgery when feasible." MRI (A) is unnecessary after CT confirmation. Radiation (B) is not first-line. Surveillance (D) may be appropriate for elderly or frail patients, not this one. Ablation (E) is for high-risk surgical patients.
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NEW QUESTION # 44
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