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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Professional
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NEW QUESTION # 339
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of a limp with malaise, fever and left leg pain. On examination, he looks sick, has a temperature of 38.5°C and is able to weight-bear.
His hip examination reveals mildly decreased range of motion. Radiographs of the hip and femur show mild sclerosis of proximal femoral metaphysis. His C-reactive protein level is 15 mg/L ( < 8). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This presentation best fits osteomyelitis, likely subacute given the 2-week course and radiographic metaphyseal sclerosis. MCCQE objectives stress that fever, systemic malaise, and elevated inflammatory markers (CRP above normal) with localized limb pain/limp should prompt consideration of bone infection even if the child can still weight-bear. Osteomyelitis in children commonly involves the metaphysis of long bones due to vascular anatomy; early x-rays may be normal, but with time they can show periosteal reaction or sclerosis. In contrast, transient synovitis typically occurs after a viral illness, is usually afebrile or minimally febrile, and inflammatory markers are often normal. Legg-Calve-Perthes is classically age 4-8 and affects the femoral epiphysis/head with avascular necrosis changes rather than metaphyseal sclerosis and systemic illness. SCFE presents in adolescents with limp and limited internal rotation/obligate external rotation, usually without fever or elevated CRP, and x-ray shows epiphyseal slip. An undisplaced fracture would usually have trauma history and not systemic features.
NEW QUESTION # 340
A 39-year-old woman comes to see you for her periodic health examination. Her father died at 55 of colon cancer, and she is concerned about the possible risk of her developing bowel cancer. Which one of the following would you advise her in terms of screening for colorectal cancer?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A first-degree relative with colorectal cancer diagnosed before age 60 places this patient in an increased-risk screening category. For individuals with one first-degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer (or advanced adenoma) before age 60, recommended screening is colonoscopy starting at age 40, or 10 years earlier than the age at diagnosis in the affected relative-whichever comes first-then repeated at shorter intervals than average-risk screening (often every 5 years if results are normal, depending on local guidance and findings). Here, her father was diagnosed at 55, so "10 years earlier" would be age 45; however, the
"whichever comes first" rule makes age 40 the correct start. Average-risk strategies such as FIT starting at 50 are not sufficient for this risk level. Flexible sigmoidoscopy alone is less appropriate because it does not evaluate the proximal colon and is not the preferred increased-risk test. Double-contrast barium enema is obsolete for screening, and CT colonography is not first-line in this context. MCCQE objectives emphasize tailoring screening to family-history risk and selecting the appropriate test and start age.
NEW QUESTION # 341
A 67-year-old woman presents with headaches, muscle weakness, pain in her shoulders and hips, weight loss, and depression. While also arranging appropriate investigations to confirm a diagnosis, which one of the following is the most important objective of treatment?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This clinical picture suggests giant cell arteritis (GCA) associated with polymyalgia rheumatica: new-onset headache in an older patient, proximal muscle pain and stiffness (shoulders and hips), systemic symptoms (weight loss), and mood changes. MCCQE objectives emphasize that GCA is a medical emergency because inflammation of the temporal and other cranial arteries can lead to irreversible vision loss due to ischemic optic neuropathy.
The most important objective of treatment is prevention of blindness , which requires prompt initiation of high-dose corticosteroids-often before confirmatory temporal artery biopsy-to reduce arterial inflammation and prevent vascular occlusion. While improving musculoskeletal pain and headache are important symptomatic goals, they are secondary to preventing permanent complications. Jaw claudication is a symptom of arterial insufficiency but not itself the primary outcome to prevent.
Early recognition and immediate corticosteroid therapy significantly reduce the risk of bilateral, permanent visual loss. Therefore, prevention of blindness is the most critical treatment objective.
NEW QUESTION # 342
A 55-year-old man presents with vague abdominal pain and general weakness. His mother had colon cancer and died at age 60 years. His physical examination findings and complete blood count results are normal.
Which one of the following tests should be ordered first?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Given his age and a first-degree relative with colon cancer diagnosed before age 60, this patient meets criteria for early colon cancer screening. Colonoscopy is the gold standard for both screening and diagnosis in this context.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Colorectal Cancer Screening":
"Patients with a first-degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer before age 60 should begin screening at age 40, or 10 years before the relative's diagnosis. Colonoscopy is the preferred method." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > Preventive Screening > 63-1):
"Candidates must apply colorectal cancer screening guidelines and select appropriate tests based on risk level." FIT (A) is for average-risk screening. MRI (B) and CT colonography (E) are secondary. Barium enema (D) is outdated.
NEW QUESTION # 343
A 36-year-old woman presents to the office with a 2-month history of multiple asymptomatic bumps on her vulva. She is not currently sexually active but has had 2 male sexual partners in the past, with the most recent relationship ending 1 year ago. On examination, she appears to have genital warts. She has not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine and is not interested in any treatment that is not absolutely necessary.
Which of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The patient has clinical evidence of genital warts (condyloma acuminata), which are caused by low-risk HPV types. Even though she is not currently sexually active and has visible warts, HPV vaccination is still beneficial for protection against other oncogenic strains (especially types 16 and 18). Vaccination is safe and recommended up to age 45.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "STIs and HPV":
"Vaccination is recommended up to age 45, regardless of prior exposure or visible warts. It may prevent reinfection with or acquisition of high-risk HPV strains." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 83-3: STIs and HPV):
"Candidates must counsel patients appropriately on prevention, including the role of HPV vaccination, even after exposure or infection." Pap testing (B) is routine screening, not management of visible warts. Cryotherapy (D) is optional if the patient desires removal, but she declined treatment. Biopsy (A) is reserved for atypical lesions. Contact tracing (E) is not typically required for HPV warts.
NEW QUESTION # 344
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