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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Forensics Processes | 15% | - Antiforensic techniques: debugging, geolocation, obfuscation - Data acquisition: memory, disk, network - Legal and compliance considerations - Evidence handling and chain of custody |
| Fundamentals | 20% | - Evidence collection in virtualized environments - Encoding and obfuscation techniques - YARA rules for malware identification and classification - Root cause analysis reporting components - Network infrastructure device forensics - Antiforensic tactics, techniques, and procedures |
| Malware Analysis | 15% | - Reverse engineering principles - Malware family and campaign identification - Static and dynamic malware analysis - Malware classification and behavior analysis |
| Forensics Techniques | 20% | - MITRE ATT&CK framework for fileless malware analysis - Script analysis (Python, PowerShell, Bash) for log processing - Forensic tools: Volatility, Sysinternals, SIFT, TCPdump - Identifying Indicators of Compromise (IOC) from tools output - Host-based evidence location and collection |
| Incident Response Techniques | 30% | - Threat intelligence interpretation: IOCs, IOAs, actor profiling - Cisco security solutions for detection and prevention - Correlating host and network activity data - Response to zero-day exploits and vulnerabilities - Interpreting alerts from SIEM, IDS/IPS, syslog - Post-incident analysis and improvement actions - Attack vector analysis and mitigation recommendations |
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NEW QUESTION # 80
Refer to the exhibit.
A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts.
The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The alert shown is based on aSnort rulefor aUnicode directory traversal attack against IIS web servers (Microsoft platform). The key detail here is the payload content"../..%c0%af../"which is a classic IIS-specific exploit related toCVE-2000-0884.
Since the company only usesUnix systems, they arenot vulnerableto this IIS-specific attack. Therefore, these alerts are triggered by irrelevant traffic or misapplied signatures, resulting inFalse Positives.
As defined in the Cisco CyberOps guide:
"False Positive: an alert is generated for traffic that is not actually malicious or relevant to the protected environment".
NEW QUESTION # 81
Refer to the exhibit.
A security analyst notices unusual connections while monitoring traffic. What is the attack vector, and which action should be taken to prevent this type of event?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The exhibit shows multipleARP reply packetswith the same IP addresses (192.168.51.105and192.
168.51.201) being mapped todifferent MAC addresses, which triggers the message: "duplicate use of [IP] detected". This is a strong indicator of anARP spoofing(or poisoning) attack.
ARP spoofing occurs when a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another host. This misleads other devices on the network and allows interception or redirection of traffic.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide specifically recommendsconfiguring port securityon switches as a method tomitigate ARP spoofing, by limiting the number of MAC addresses allowed per port or statically assigning legitimate MAC addresses to switch ports.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Refer to the exhibit.
A cybersecurity analyst is presented with the snippet of code used by the threat actor and left behind during the latest incident and is asked to determine its type based on its structure and functionality. What is the type of code being examined?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Python code snippet:
* Usessocket.socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM), which indicatesTCP communication
* Connects to a remote server (192.168.1.10on port 80)
* Sends a manual HTTPGETrequest
* Receives the response usings.recv()
This is a classic example ofTCP/IP socket programming, specifically creating asimple TCP clientto communicate with a web server. It does not monitor traffic or crawl websites - it sends a crafted request and prints the response.
Thus, this code best fits:
D). socket programming listener for TCP/IP communication.
NEW QUESTION # 83
The Digital Forensics and Incident Response (DFIR) team notices many encrypted files on an endpoint. The team also determines that the threat uses stolen Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) credentials. The DFIR team responds according to the internal incident-response playbook. Which two elements make up the containment phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Endpoint segmentation contains the ransomware by isolating affected systems and restricting east-west movement, thereby limiting additional encryption and preventing the attacker from reaching other assets through RDP. Multifactor authentication addresses the second active risk: stolen credentials. Requiring another factor makes the captured password insufficient for renewed remote access and helps contain credential-based lateral movement. System information discovery is an attacker behavior, not a defensive control. A steganographic decoder is an analysis utility unrelated to ransomware containment, while a traffic- scrubbing service is primarily used against volumetric denial-of-service traffic. In a playbook, these actions should be accompanied by credential revocation, session termination, evidence preservation, and scoping, but those choices are not offered. This maps to CBRFIR Incident Response Processes objective 5.2, which requires evaluating playbook elements, and to the course's framework for responding to incidents. Cisco CBRFIR training overview
NEW QUESTION # 84
An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
When suspicious activity is detected on a workstation, immediate steps need to be taken to preserve evidence and prevent further compromise:
* Disconnecting the system from the network (C)is crucial to stop potential exfiltration of data or ongoing communications with a command-and-control server. This isolation prevents further spread or damage while preserving the state of the compromised system for further investigation.
* Taking an image of the workstation (E)is part of the forensics acquisition process. It involves creating a bit-by-bit copy of the system's disk, which preserves all evidence in its current state. This allows for thorough forensic analysis without affecting the original evidence.
These steps align with the best practices outlined in the incident response and forensics processes (as described in theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide). Specifically, in theIdentification and Containmentphases of the incident response cycle, it's emphasized that isolating the system and preserving evidence through imaging are critical to ensuring both containment of the threat and successful forensic investigation.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding the Security Incident Response Process, Identification and Containment Phases, page 102-104.
NEW QUESTION # 85
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