Actual CS0-004 Test Answers | Latest CompTIA CS0-004: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam 100% Pass

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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Vulnerability Management26%- Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
  • 1. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment
  • 2. Remediation Verification and Tracking
  • 3. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
  • 4. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities
Incident Response and Management24%- Incident Handling and Investigation
  • 1. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks
  • 2. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals
  • 3. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned
  • 4. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
Security Operations34%- Security Monitoring and Analysis
  • 1. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting
  • 2. SIEM Implementation and Analysis
  • 3. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring
  • 4. System and Network Architecture Security
  • 5. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts
Reporting and Communication16%- Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
  • 1. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences
  • 2. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
  • 3. Security Reporting and Documentation

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q95-Q100):

NEW QUESTION # 95
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan on the corporate assets and finds the following vulnerabilities:

The vulnerability manager reviews the analyst's recommendations and asks the analyst to add more information in order to confirm prioritization. Which of the following best explains the reason the manager requests more information?

Answer: D

Explanation:
CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to prioritize remediation efforts. The criticality of the affected host or asset must also be considered. A vulnerability with a lower CVSS score on a mission- critical system may present a greater business risk than a higher-scoring vulnerability on a less important system. The manager is requesting additional information to perform proper risk-based prioritization.


NEW QUESTION # 96
As part of a quality assurance test, a developer wants to examine how the code behaves after an application has been fully compiled and is running. Which of the following best describes the type of testing that the developer should perform?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Dynamic testing evaluates the application during runtime after it has been compiled, allowing the developer to observe actual behavior, execution flow, and interactions while the application is running.


NEW QUESTION # 97
Which of the following describes the importance of an organization understanding SLOs when outsourcing IR to a third party?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Service Level Objectives (SLOs) define specific performance targets for services provided by a third party, such as incident detection, response, or resolution times. Understanding these objectives allows an organization to measure and track the provider's performance through relevant KPIs and determine whether the outsourced incident response service is meeting expectations.


NEW QUESTION # 98
A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role.
Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT & CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The attacker is attempting lateral movement because an already compromised identity is being used to move from one cloud environment or subscription into another. Lateral movement describes adversary activity intended to reach additional systems, services, accounts, or resources after an initial foothold has been established.
MITRE ATT & CK specifically includes cloud-oriented lateral movement. Its Lateral Movement tactic documents adversaries using valid accounts to access additional cloud services and resources within compromised environments. MITRE also documents cloud-role manipulation that may enable movement into additional accounts, demonstrating how identity and role relationships can become lateral-movement pathways in cloud architectures.
Privilege escalation would apply if the attacker were primarily attempting to obtain greater permissions within the current security context. Persistence concerns maintaining long-term access. Execution concerns running malicious code or commands. Credential access involves obtaining credentials or authentication material.
In this scenario, the attacker already possesses a compromised user role. The objective is to use that existing access to traverse a trust boundary and reach another isolated subscription. That movement between security domains is the decisive indicator of the Lateral Movement tactic.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # MITRE ATT & CK # Lateral Movement # Cloud Services # Valid Accounts # IAM Roles # Cross-Subscription Access.


NEW QUESTION # 99
A security architect reviews a report from a third-party incident response consultant and observes the following:

Which of the following frameworks did the consultant use to perform analysis?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Diamond Model analyzes incidents using four core elements: adversary, infrastructure, capability, and victim, which directly match the report.


NEW QUESTION # 100
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