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NEW QUESTION # 10
Which of the following should be addressed in the organization's risk management strategy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
An organization's risk management strategy is a governance-level artifact that sets direction for how risk is managed across the enterprise. A core requirement in cybersecurity governance frameworks is clear accountability, including executive ownership for risk decisions that affect the whole organization. Assigning an executive responsible for risk management establishes authority to set risk appetite and tolerance, coordinate risk activities across business units, resolve conflicts between competing priorities, and ensure risk decisions are made consistently rather than in isolated silos. This executive role also supports oversight of risk reporting to senior leadership, ensures resources are allocated to address material risks, and drives integration between cybersecurity, privacy, compliance, and operational resilience programs. Without an accountable executive function, risk management often becomes fragmented, with inconsistent scoring, uneven control implementation, and unclear decision rights for accepting or treating risk.
Option A can be part of a strategy, but the question asks what should be addressed, and the most critical foundational element is enterprise accountability and governance. Option B is too granular for a strategy; selecting controls for each IT asset belongs in security architecture, control baselines, and system-level risk assessments. Option C is typically handled in incident response and breach management plans and procedures, which are operational documents derived from strategy but not the strategy itself. Therefore, the best answer is the assignment of an executive responsible for risk management across the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 11
Other than the Requirements Analysis document, in what project deliverable should Vendor Security Requirements be included?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security requirements in an RFP typically cover topics such as secure development practices, vulnerability management, patching and support timelines, encryption for data at rest and in transit, identity and access controls, audit logging, incident notification timelines, subcontractor controls, data residency and retention, penetration testing evidence, compliance attestations, and right-to-audit provisions. The RFP also enables objective scoring by requesting documented evidence such as security certifications, control descriptions, and responses to standardized security questionnaires.
A training plan and business continuity plan are operational deliverables and do not drive vendor selection criteria. A project charter sets scope and governance at a high level, but it is not the primary procurement artifact for binding vendor security obligations. Therefore, the correct answer is Request For Proposals.
NEW QUESTION # 12
Certificates that provide SSL/TLS encryption capability:
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSL/TLS relies on digital certificates to support encrypted communications and to help users trust that they are connecting to the correct server. A TLS certificate is typically an X.509 certificate that binds a public key to an identity, such as a domain name, and is digitally signed by a trusted issuer. In most public internet use cases, these certificates are issued by Certificate Authorities that browsers and operating systems already trust through pre-installed root certificates. Because of that trust chain, organizations commonly obtain certificates by purchasing or otherwise obtaining them from certificate authorities, which is why option B is correct.
During the TLS handshake, the server presents its certificate to the client. The client validates the certificate's signature chain, validity period, and that the certificate matches the domain being accessed. Once validated, TLS establishes session keys used to encrypt data in transit and protect it from eavesdropping and tampering. Certificates themselves are not "similar to unencrypted data," and they are not specific to thumb-drive storage; they are used to secure network communications. Certificates also do not primarily provide "authorization" to access data. Authorization is typically enforced by application and access control mechanisms after authentication. Certificates support authentication of endpoints and enable secure key exchange, which are prerequisites for secure transport encryption and trustworthy connections.
NEW QUESTION # 13
Analyst B has discovered multiple sources which can harm the organization's systems. What has she discovered?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multiple sources that can harm an organization's systems are classified as threats. In cybersecurity risk terminology, a threat is any circumstance, event, actor, or condition with the potential to adversely impact confidentiality, integrity, or availability. Threats can be human (external attackers, insiders, third-party compromises), technical (malware, ransomware campaigns, exploit kits), operational (misconfigurations, weak processes, inadequate monitoring), or environmental (power disruption, natural disasters). This differs from a breach, which is the realized outcome where unauthorized access or disclosure has already occurred. It also differs from hacker, which refers to one type of threat actor rather than the broader category of potential harm. Ransomware is a specific threat type (malware that encrypts data and demands payment), not a general term for multiple sources of harm. Cybersecurity documents commonly pair "threats" with "vulnerabilities" and "controls": threats exploit vulnerabilities to create risk; controls reduce either the likelihood of exploitation or the impact if exploitation occurs. Identifying "multiple sources which can harm systems" is essentially threat identification-an early and ongoing step in risk management used to inform security architecture, monitoring, and incident preparedness. Therefore, the correct concept is threat.
NEW QUESTION # 14
What is the first step of the forensic process?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step in a standard digital forensic process is collection because all later work depends on obtaining data in a way that preserves its integrity and evidentiary value. Collection involves identifying potential sources of relevant evidence and then acquiring it using controlled, repeatable methods. Typical sources include endpoint disk images, memory captures, mobile device extractions, server and application logs, cloud audit trails, email records, firewall and proxy logs, and authentication events. During collection, forensic guidance emphasizes maintaining a documented chain of custody, recording who handled the evidence, when it was acquired, how it was transported and stored, and what tools and settings were used. This documentation supports accountability and helps ensure evidence is admissible and defensible if used in disciplinary actions, regulatory inquiries, or legal proceedings.
Collection also includes steps to prevent evidence contamination or loss. Investigators may isolate systems to stop further changes, capture volatile data such as RAM before shutdown, use write blockers when imaging storage media, verify acquisitions with cryptographic hashes, and securely store originals while performing analysis on validated copies. Only after evidence is collected and preserved do teams move into examination and analysis, where artifacts are filtered, parsed, correlated, and interpreted to reconstruct timelines and determine cause and scope. Reporting comes later to communicate findings and support remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 15
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