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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 2
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 3
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 4
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 5
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 6
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 7
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 8
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 9
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 10
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 11
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 12
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 13
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 14
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 15
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 16
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 17
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 18
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q326-Q331):

NEW QUESTION # 326
(A patient is in the operating room for a planned partial meniscectomy of the temporomandibular joint.
However, after general anesthesia was administered and the oral surgeon made the incision, the patient experienced respiratory distress. The oral surgeon decides tocancel the procedure. What CPT coding is reported for the oral surgeon?)

Answer: B

Explanation:
Modifier selection for discontinued procedures depends onsettingandhow far the procedure progressed. In the CPT modifier framework,-53(Discontinued Procedure) is used when a physician terminates a procedure due toextenuating circumstances or those that threaten the well-being of the patientafter the procedure has begun.
Here, anesthesia was given, the incision was made, and then respiratory distress occurred-clearly a patient safety issue requiring stopping the surgery. That matches modifier-53for the surgeon's claim. Modifier-74is afacilitymodifier (commonly used by ambulatory surgery centers/hospitals for discontinued outpatient procedures after anesthesia), not the surgeon's CPT modifier in the typical CPC context. Modifier-47indicates anesthesia by the surgeon, which is not the key fact here and does not represent discontinuation. Modifier-52is for reduced services when a service is partially reduced at the physician's discretion, not terminated for patient safety. Therefore, the oral surgeon reports21060-53.


NEW QUESTION # 327
A patient presents to the urgent care facility with multiple burns acquired while burning debris in his backyard. After examination the physician determines the patient has third-degree burns of the left and right posterior thighs (10%). He also has second-degree burns of the anterior portion of the right side of his chest wall (8%) and upper back (6%). TBSA is 24% with third-degree burns totaling 10%.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported, according to 1CD-10-CM coding guidelines?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In coding burns, ICD-10-CM guidelines indicate that each burn site is coded separately, specifying the degree, location, and extent of the burn. Additionally, a code for total body surface area (TBSA) burned is included when burns cover more than 10% of the body. Here's the breakdown:
1. T24.311A: Represents a third-degree burn on the left thigh, initial encounter.
2. T24.312A: Represents a third-degree burn on the right thigh, initial encounter.
3. T21.21XA: Represents a second-degree burn on the anterior chest wall, initial encounter.
4. T21.23XA: Represents a second-degree burn on the upper back, initial encounter.
5. T31.21: Represents burns with 20-29% TBSA involvement, with third-degree burns covering 10-19% of the TBSA.
Explanation of incorrect answers:
A includes an incorrect TBSA code (T31.21).
B has the correct codes but lists an incorrect TBSA code for third-degree burns.
C uses incorrect burn site codes for the areas involved and incorrect TBSA percentages.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. T24.311A, T24.312A, T21.21XA, T21.23XA, T31.21, which accurately captures the burns' degrees, locations, and TBSA.


NEW QUESTION # 328
(A 5-year-old patient has a fractured radius. The orthopedist providesmoderate sedationand the reduction. The intra-service sedation time is documented as21 minutes. What CPT code is reported for the moderate sedation?)

Answer: A

Explanation:
Moderate sedation codes are selected by (1)patient ageand (2) whether the sedation is provided by thesame physician performing the procedureor by a different provider. The stem states theorthopedist provides the sedation and the reduction, so the sedation is provided by thesame physicianwho performs the procedure. For age, the patient is5 years old, which falls into the#5 yearscategory. Therefore, the correct initial moderate sedation code is99152(moderate sedation provided by the same physician/other qualified provider performing the procedure; patient age 5 years or older; initial 15 minutes). The documented time is21 minutes, which supports only theinitialcode (it does not reach the threshold needed to report an additional 15-minute increment add-on). Code99151is for patientsunder 5 years, so it does not apply. Codes99155/99156are for sedation provided by adifferentprovider than the one performing the procedure. CPC exam tip: age cutoffs matter-exactly 5years old uses the "5 years or older" code set.


NEW QUESTION # 329
An incision is made in the scalp, a craniectomy is performed to access the area where electrodes are present. The electrodes are removed. The surgical wound is closed.
What procedure code is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The procedure described involves the removal of electrodes from the cranial area after making an incision in the scalp and performing a craniectomy.
Procedure Description:
Incision in the scalp.
Craniectomy to access the area with electrodes.
Removal of electrodes.
Closure of the surgical wound.
CPT Coding:
61860: Removal of intracranial neurostimulator electrodes, including burr hole(s) or craniectomy.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on neurostimulator procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 330
An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Procedure: Visual field examination of both eyes using Goldmann perimeter testing with four isopters.
CPT Code:
92082: This code is for visual field examination with intermediate examination.
ICD-10-CM Code:
G43.009: Migraine without aura, not intractable, without status migrainosus.
Code Selection Justification: The visual field exam method and complexity align with 92082. The patient's diagnosis of non-intractable migraine without aura is coded as G43.009.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 331
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