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NEW QUESTION # 204
SIPC provides investor protection for its members' customers in which of the following situations?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers if a broker-dealer fails due to insolvency. Coverage applies to cash and securities in customer accounts, up to $500,000 total, including
$250,000 for cash.
* A is correct because SIPC's purpose is to protect against losses arising from a broker-dealer's insolvency.
* B is incorrect because SIPC does not guarantee investment performance.
* C is incorrect because SIPC does not cover market losses.
* D is incorrect because futures contracts are not covered under SIPC.
Reference: Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970; SIPC FAQs
NEW QUESTION # 205
Under SEC Regulation A, which of the following market participants, if deemed to be a bad actor, will disqualify the offering from reliance on this registration exemption?
Answer: C
Explanation:
SEC Regulation A provides a registration exemption for smaller public offerings but includes a "bad actor" disqualification. If certain key parties, such as the issuer, underwriter, or affiliates, have been involved in securities violations, the exemption is forfeited.
* B is correctbecause underwriters are considered essential participants, and their status as bad actors disqualifies the offering.
* A,C, andDare incorrect because custodians, transfer agents, and clearing corporations are not included in the "bad actor" provisions of Regulation A.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Executing trades using the delivery versus payment (DVP) settlement process requires the buyer to make a cash payment by which of the following deadlines?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* DVP Process: Ensures that payment occurs simultaneously with the delivery of securities, mitigating counterparty risk. Cash payment is made before or at the time of delivery.
* Incorrect Options:
* A: The T+5 timeline is not standard for DVP.
* C: Payment must occur at delivery, not after.
* D: Settlement date agreements with the issuer are irrelevant for DVP.
FINRA Guidelines on DVP/RVP Transactions: FINRA DVP Info.
NEW QUESTION # 207
When an investor is subject to a limitation on his ability to sell his investment, he is most likely to experience which of the following types of risk?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Liquidity risk is the risk that an investor may not be able to sell an investment quickly, efficiently, or at a fair market price. The question specifically describes a limitation on the investor's ability to sell, which is the defining feature of liquidity risk. An investment may be illiquid because of transfer restrictions, limited secondary-market demand, lack of active buyers, lock-up periods, private placement restrictions, or product structure. When liquidity is limited, the investor may be forced to hold the position longer than intended or accept a reduced price to exit. Market risk is broader and refers to losses caused by general market movements. Political risk involves adverse effects from government action, instability, or policy changes.
Prepayment risk applies mainly to mortgage-backed or callable debt instruments when principal is returned earlier than expected. The SIE outline identifies liquidity as a core investment risk and also notes that certain products, such as direct participation programs and hedge funds, are generally illiquid. Reference: Section 2.2 Investment Risks; Section 2.1.6 Direct Participation Programs; Section 2.1.8 Hedge Funds.
NEW QUESTION # 208
Which of the following actions typically changes the cost basis of a mutual fund position that a customer holds?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A mutual fund investor's cost basis is generally the total amount invested in the position, adjusted for actions that add to or reduce the investor's investment in the fund. Reinvested dividends change cost basis because the dividends are used to purchase additional shares, which increases the investor's total invested amount.
Even if the dividends are paid from the fund and immediately reinvested, the IRS treats them as distributed to the shareholder and then used to buy shares. As a result, reinvestment increases the number of shares owned and increases total basis by the amount reinvested. Therefore, D is correct.
Choice A is incorrect because transferring a position via ACATS does not change the investor's economic investment; it is simply moving the account/position between firms. The cost basis should transfer as part of the record (subject to cost basis reporting rules), but the act of transfer itself does not change basis. Choice B is incorrect because NAV movement changes market value, not what the investor paid; unrealized appreciation does not change cost basis. Choice C is incorrect because a new portfolio manager may affect future performance, but it does not alter the historical amounts the investor contributed or reinvested; thus it does not change basis.
For SIE purposes, the key relationship is: cost basis changes when the investor adds money (new purchases, dividend/cap gains reinvestments) or when basis is adjusted due to specific corporate/fund actions (like return of capital distributions in some contexts). Reinvested dividends are a standard, frequently tested basis- changing event because they affect taxable reporting and future gain/loss calculations upon redemption.
NEW QUESTION # 209
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