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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security Settings and Policies | 25% | - Communication control policies - Playbooks creation and management - Fortinet Cloud Service (FCS) integration - Security policies configuration |
| Events, Forensics, and Threat Hunting | 25% | - Threat hunting data interpretation - Security event and alert analysis - Forensic analysis and incident investigation - Threat hunting profiles and queries |
| FortiEDR System Architecture and Deployment | 25% | - Architecture and technical positioning - Multi-tenancy deployment - API-based management operations - Inventory management and system tools - Installation and deployment process |
| Monitoring and Troubleshooting | 10% | - System monitoring and health checks - Performance and issue diagnosis - Log and alert troubleshooting |
| Integration and Security Fabric | 15% | - Fortinet Security Fabric integration - FortiXDR deployment and configuration |
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NEW QUESTION # 10
Which two statements correctly describe the IoT probing process on FortiEDR? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address .
This directly supports option B .
Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.
Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 11
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 12
Refer to the exhibit:
You configured an execution prevention exclusion with both File Name = app.exe and Path = C:\Tools. What will FortiEDR do? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Exclude only app.exe when it is running from C:\Tools.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that the Exclusion Manager is used to define which processes, files, or domains are excluded from Security Policies monitoring. For Process Exclusions, FortiEDR does not inspect actions performed by specific processes, and those processes are identified by the attributes defined by the administrator.
The guide further explains that process/source attributes can include File Name, Path, Hash, and Signer. It also states that when an exclusion contains multiple conditions, an AND relationship exists between the conditions. If an OR relationship is required, a separate exclusion must be created.
In this exhibit, both conditions are selected:
File Name = app.exe
Path = C:\Tools
Because FortiEDR applies an AND relationship between multiple exclusion conditions, the exclusion applies only when both conditions match. Therefore, FortiEDR excludes app.exe only when it is located/running from C:\Tools.
Option A is wrong because no Signer condition is selected. Option C is wrong because that would apply if only the file name were used broadly. Option D is wrong because FortiEDR is not excluding every file in C:
\Tools; it is excluding the process that matches both the file name and path conditions.
NEW QUESTION # 13
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the incident details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this incident are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows an audit/response action stating that IP address 74.125.235.20 was added to malicious IP addresses on firewall FortiGate . This matches the FortiEDR playbook action Block address on Firewall .
The guide states that this action ensures connections to remote malicious addresses associated with the security event are blocked, and that a firewall connector must already be configured for this action. It also explains that a checkmark in a classification column means communication with the affected destination is automatically blocked when a security event with that classification is triggered.
Option C is the second best answer because FortiEDR events are initially classified by FortiEDR detection logic/Core, and the guide states that classifications are initially determined by the Core but can later be changed automatically by FortiEDR Cloud Service or manually. The exhibit shows "Classification Changed To: Suspicious (By Fortinet)" , but it does not say the event was manually classified by an administrator. So the event classification process is FortiEDR-driven, with later Fortinet/FCS-style automatic classification possible.
Option B is wrong. The exhibit shows one raw-data row with device cwinserv-32 +2 , which indicates more than one affected device/raw item is represented in the aggregation. So it did not occur on only one device.
Option D is wrong because the incident rows clearly show Unhandled . The guide states that security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and the unread/unhandled status helps users track whether anyone has read and handled the event.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 15
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