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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| CDI Program Management & Professional Practice | 15% | - Ethics, HIPAA, and professional conduct - Provider education and training strategies - Program metrics, benchmarks, and performance measurement |
| Clinical Knowledge & Disease Processes Application | 20% | - Clinical indicators, lab results, medications, diagnostic findings - Medical terminology, anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology - Disease processes across body systems applied to chart review |
| Clinical Documentation Review & Query Practices | 20% | - Query development, communication, and ethical standards - Documentation gap identification and resolution - Concurrent and retrospective chart review methodologies |
| Quality, Risk Adjustment & Health Initiatives | 15% | - Quality reporting, public reporting, and compliance programs - Risk adjustment models and documentation impact - Severity of Illness (SOI) / Risk of Mortality (ROM) |
| Healthcare Regulations, Reimbursement & Documentation Requirements – IPPS | 15% | - Medicare Severity Diagnostic Related Groups (MS-DRGs) - Documentation responsibilities of medical and clinical staff - Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) fundamentals |
| Coding Guidelines & Official Reporting Standards | 15% | - Coding integrity and compliant documentation practices - AHIMA/ACDIS Guidelines for Compliant Query Practice - ICD-10-CM/PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting |
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NEW QUESTION # 14
A patient is admitted with alcohol intoxication. The H & P notes increased tolerance related to alcohol consumption, desire to drink despite impaired liver functions, and unsuccessful attempts to stop drinking.
Identify the query opportunity related to alcohol consumption.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The documented behavioral characteristics most strongly support clarification of alcohol dependence. The record describes increased tolerance, continued alcohol use despite recognized medical harm, and unsuccessful efforts to stop drinking. These features reflect a persistent maladaptive pattern with physiologic and behavioral characteristics associated with dependence/alcohol use disorder.
Alcohol intoxication identifies the acute effect of recent consumption but does not describe the patient's underlying pattern of alcohol use. Therefore, the CDI opportunity is to clarify whether a chronic alcohol- related disorder such as dependence is present when clinically supported.
Withdrawal is not established merely because a dependent patient is hospitalized. Withdrawal requires symptoms occurring after reduction or cessation of alcohol exposure, potentially including tremor, autonomic hyperactivity, nausea, anxiety, seizures, hallucinations, or agitation. Delirium tremens represents a severe alcohol-withdrawal syndrome involving delirium and marked autonomic disturbance and is not supported by the scenario.
"Abuse" is less consistent with the pronounced dependence-type behaviors provided. The CDI specialist should nevertheless frame the query neutrally and allow the physician to identify dependence, abuse, another alcohol-related condition, or inability to determine.
CCDS Reference Topics: Substance-related disorders; alcohol dependence; intoxication versus withdrawal; clinical indicators.
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NEW QUESTION # 15
A patient with sepsis has acute confusion, impaired attention, fluctuating mental status, and no focal neurologic findings. CT of the head is negative. The provider documents only "AMS secondary to infection." Which clarification would be MOST clinically appropriate?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The documented acute mental-status change associated with systemic infection creates a reasonable clarification opportunity for acute metabolic encephalopathy, assuming the complete clinical record supports that diagnosis.
Encephalopathy represents diffuse cerebral dysfunction arising from systemic, metabolic, toxic, hypoxic, infectious, or other causes. Acute confusion, impaired attention, fluctuating cognition, and absence of a focal lesion can support an encephalopathic process.
However, the CDI specialist cannot convert "altered mental status" into encephalopathy independently. The provider must determine whether the patient's presentation represents metabolic encephalopathy, delirium, medication effect, dementia, another neurologic condition, or simply a nonspecific symptom.
Chronic dementia does not fit the acute fluctuating pattern unless underlying dementia is separately documented. Cerebral infarction would generally require compatible focal neurologic findings and clinical or imaging evidence. Transient global amnesia typically presents with prominent acute memory disturbance rather than generalized encephalopathy.
A compliant query should include the mental-status findings, infectious process, relevant laboratory data, neurologic evaluation, treatment, and clinical course.
CCDS Reference Topics: Encephalopathy; altered mental status; infection; neurologic clinical indicators; diagnostic clarification.
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NEW QUESTION # 16
A physician documents acute kidney injury. The patient's creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL on admission, 0.9 mg/dL the following day, and 0.8 mg/dL at discharge. Urine output remains normal and no renal treatment is provided.
What is the BEST CDI action?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A clinical validation query is appropriate because the documented diagnosis appears inconsistent with the available clinical evidence. The creatinine values remain essentially unchanged, urine output is normal, and there is no apparent treatment or monitoring consistent with acute renal dysfunction.
The CDI specialist cannot simply delete the diagnosis because providers are responsible for establishing diagnoses. Conversely, a diagnosis should not automatically be accepted when substantial clinical evidence raises a legitimate question about its validity.
A compliant query would present the documented AKI together with the pertinent renal findings and request clarification. The provider could confirm AKI and provide supporting clinical reasoning, revise the diagnosis, state that it was ruled out, or document another condition.
Assigning chronic kidney disease would be equally inappropriate because CKD requires evidence of chronic kidney abnormality and cannot be inferred from these laboratory values.
The August 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA query guidance supersedes prior versions and remains the foundational standard for clinical validation and documentation clarification.
Clinical validation protects data integrity because diagnoses influence reimbursement, quality reporting, severity measurement, utilization analysis, and downstream patient information.
CCDS Reference Topics: Clinical validation; AKI; unsupported diagnoses; provider clarification; compliance.
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NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following is considered by CMS to be a HAC requiring MS-DRG adjustment if not POA?
Answer: A
Explanation:
CMS specifically includes deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism following certain orthopedic procedures, including total knee replacement and hip replacement, among Hospital-Acquired Conditions subject to the HAC/POA payment provisions. Therefore, option C is correct.
Under the IPPS HAC payment policy, qualifying conditions that were not present on admission may lose their normal CC/MCC effect for MS-DRG assignment when all applicable criteria are met. This makes accurate POA determination essential in CDI and coding.
Pressure ulcers are also part of the HAC framework, but the CMS category historically applies specifically to Stage III and Stage IV pressure ulcers. An unstageable pressure ulcer does not automatically satisfy the Stage III/IV HAC category merely because it is severe or clinically significant. CMS materials distinguish an unstageable ulcer from a documented Stage III or IV ulcer.
Postoperative pneumonia and septic shock are not, by themselves, the specified HAC category represented by the answer choices.
The CCDS blueprint specifically requires candidates to identify CMS-designated HACs and understand the effect of POA assignment on payment.
CCDS Reference Topics: IPPS; Hospital-Acquired Conditions; POA; MS-DRG adjustment.
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NEW QUESTION # 18
The attending physician documents acute respiratory failure. The patient has normal respiratory effort, oxygen saturation of 97% on room air, no supplemental oxygen requirement, and no ventilatory support. What is the MOST appropriate CDI action?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is a classic clinical validation query scenario. A diagnosis has been documented, but the available clinical evidence appears inconsistent with or insufficient to support that diagnosis.
The CDI specialist should not independently delete acute respiratory failure, substitute another diagnosis, or direct coding personnel to disregard provider documentation without an appropriate clarification process.
Instead, the query should objectively present the relevant clinical findings-normal respiratory effort, room- air oxygenation, absence of escalating oxygen requirements, and absence of ventilatory support-and ask the provider to clarify the diagnosis.
The provider may confirm respiratory failure and document additional clinical reasoning, revise the diagnosis, identify another condition, or state that the diagnosis was ruled out. The CDI specialist's responsibility is to support record integrity, not to replace provider clinical judgment.
The official CCDS content outline specifically requires candidates to understand mechanisms for addressing diagnoses lacking clinical support and to distinguish compliant from noncompliant queries. The current 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA guidance is the foundational query-practice standard.
CCDS Reference Topics: Clinical validation; respiratory failure; unsupported diagnoses; compliant query practice; documentation integrity.
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NEW QUESTION # 19
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