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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
|
| Physician Activities | - Assessment
|
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NEW QUESTION # 153
A patient's mother comes to you with a prospective cohort study linking autism to the measles, mumps and rubella vaccine. After reviewing the study carefully, you question the results because of problems with the study design and execution. Which one of the following sources of error would be most important in the study design or execution?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Recruiting participants from an autism seminar introduces selection bias. This non-random selection increases the likelihood of overestimating associations due to pre-existing beliefs or exposures in that subgroup.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Epidemiology:
"Selection bias occurs when participants are not representative of the general population, as in recruitment from disease-specific support groups." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 65-2: Study Design and Appraisal):
"Candidates must recognize sources of bias in epidemiologic studies, including selection bias due to non- representative recruitment." Recall bias (D) is more of a concern in retrospective studies. Sponsorship (B) may create perception bias but is not a flaw in methodology itself. Standard error reporting (A) is normal. Not accounting for confounders (E) matters but recruitment source is more directly biasing.
NEW QUESTION # 154
A 58-year-old woman presents to your office with refractory bipolar I disorder. She is on the following medications: lithium carbonate, valproic acid, and olanzapine. She also takes acetaminophen for osteoarthritis and pantoprazole for gastroesophageal reflux. Lately, she has noticed she bruises very easily. Laboratory work displays a platelet count of 70 × 10#/L (normal 130-400). Which one of the following is most likely to induce this side effect?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Valproic acid is well known to cause thrombocytopenia, especially at higher serum concentrations or in patients over 60. Bruising with platelet count <100 × 10#/L is a classic manifestation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Mood Disorders & Pharmacology Section:
"Valproic acid is associated with hematologic side effects including thrombocytopenia. Platelet counts should be monitored regularly." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Pharmacotherapy:
"The candidate must recognize adverse effects of mood stabilizers including hematologic complications of valproic acid." Other listed medications (A-D) have no common or direct link with thrombocytopenia in this context.
NEW QUESTION # 155
A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents to the labour and delivery unit for induction of labour. Her pregnancy is at 42 weeks' gestation and has been uncomplicated to date. Which one of the following is the most appropriate information to provide to the patient?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient has a post-term pregnancy (#42 weeks' gestation). Post-term pregnancies are associated with increased risks including placental insufficiency, oligohydramnios, meconium aspiration, fetal macrosomia, and stillbirth. During induction and labour in post-term pregnancies, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) is recommended to assess fetal well-being and detect signs of fetal distress early.
Prostaglandin induction is not contraindicated; it is commonly used for cervical ripening when indicated, provided there are no standard contraindications (e.g., prior classical cesarean). Cesarean delivery is not routinely preferred solely due to post-term status; mode of delivery should be based on obstetric indications.
According to MCCQE objectives, candidates must recognize the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and understand appropriate intrapartum management, including fetal surveillance. Continuous EFM is recommended in higher-risk situations such as post-term gestation to optimize perinatal outcomes while still aiming for safe vaginal delivery when no contraindications exist.
NEW QUESTION # 156
A 54-year-old man presents to the office because of progressively severe frontal headaches that are worse in the morning. He also has a chronic productive cough. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking tobacco cigarettes. His blood pressure is 160/95 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This presentation has "red flags" for raised intracranial pressure: headaches that are progressive, worse in the morning, and worsened by coughing/valsalva. In MCCQE objectives, these features require urgent evaluation for secondary causes (e.g., intracranial mass, hemorrhage, obstructive hydrocephalus) rather than empiric treatment for primary headache. His chronic cough and heavy smoking increase concern for an underlying malignancy with possible brain metastasis or paraneoplastic processes, further strengthening the indication for neuroimaging. Therefore, the best next step is CT head (often the fastest initial test to identify mass effect, hemorrhage, or hydrocephalus; MRI may follow depending on findings).
Treating presumed migraine with a triptan is inappropriate when secondary headache is possible and could also pose vascular risk. His blood pressure is elevated but not in a hypertensive emergency and does not explain these classic intracranial pressure features; serial BP monitoring or starting antihypertensives should not delay imaging. Temporal arteritis is less likely without temporal tenderness, jaw claudication, visual symptoms, or systemic inflammatory clues.
NEW QUESTION # 157
A 62-year-old man (wealthy philanthropist) with emphysema from smoking and a 21-year-old woman (elementary teacher) with cystic fibrosis are both compatible matches for a lung transplant. Which criterion determines organ allocation?
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 158
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