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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Incident Response and Management | 33% | - Incident handling lifecycle
|
| Topic 2: Vulnerability Management | 34% | - Vulnerability identification
|
| Topic 3: Security Operations | 33% | - Threat intelligence usage
|
>> CS0-003 Prüfungsaufgaben <<
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142. Frage
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins.
Which of the following best represents what occurred?
Antwort: B
Begründung:
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.
143. Frage
A company wants to grant access to identity administrators who are completing similar tasks.
Which of the following access control models should the company use?
Antwort: B
Begründung:
Role-based access control (RBAC) assigns permissions based on job roles, allowing identity administrators who perform similar tasks to have the same level of access efficiently and securely.
144. Frage
A security team is concerned about recent Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. Which of the following controls would best mitigate the attacks?
Antwort: C
Begründung:
Rolling out a CDN is the best control to mitigate the Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. A CDN is a Content Delivery Network, which is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server. A CDN can help protect against Layer 4 DDoS attacks, which are volumetric attacks that aim to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target website by sending a large amount of traffic, such as SYN floods, UDP floods, or ICMP floods. A CDN can mitigate these attacks by distributing the traffic across multiple servers, caching the web content closer to the users, filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic, and providing scalability and redundancy for the website12. Reference: How to Stop a DDoS Attack: Mitigation Steps for Each OSI Layer, Application layer DDoS attack | Cloudflare
145. Frage
Which of the following best describes the goal of a disaster recovery exercise as preparation for possible incidents?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
The correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.
A disaster recovery exercise is a simulation or a test of the disaster recovery plan, which is a set of procedures and resources that are used to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster or a major incident. The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is to provide metrics and test continuity controls, which are the measures that ensure the availability and resilience of the critical systems and processes of an organization.
A disaster recovery exercise can help evaluate the effectiveness, efficiency, and readiness of the disaster recovery plan, as well as identify and address any gaps or issues .
The other options are not the best descriptions of the goal of a disaster recovery exercise. Verifying the roles of the incident response team (B) is a goal of an incident response exercise, which is a simulation or a test of the incident response plan, which is a set of procedures and roles that are used to detect, contain, analyze, and remediate an incident. Providing recommendations for handling vulnerabilities is a goal of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of identifying and prioritizing the weaknesses and risks in an organization's systems or network. Performing tests against implemented security controls (D) is a goal of a penetration test, which is an authorized and simulated attack on an organization's systems or network to evaluate their security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or misconfigurations.
146. Frage
A security operations center receives the following alerts related to an organization ' s cloud tenant:
Which of the following should an analyst do first to identify the initial compromise?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
To identify the initial compromise, the analyst should start with the earliest suspicious activity in the timeline and pivot into the audit logs for the principal (identity) associated with that first alert.
Here, the first notable event is 02:00 excessive API failures tied to jdoe12@myorg.com. That commonly indicates password guessing, token misuse, or other authentication abuse attempts. The next events (02:15 metadata service access, 05:10 mass VM creation by a service account, 05:40 malware) look like follow-on activity after an initial foothold. Therefore, the best first step is to check whether those API failures were followed by any successful API calls by that user and then correlate those successful actions to the later stages in project staging-01.
This approach aligns with CySA+ guidance that analysts should use logs + timestamps to build a timeline and correlate events across identities/systems to understand scope and progression:
Sybex emphasizes correlating events from multiple sources and using that correlation to determine scope and impact:Exact extract (Sybex Study Guide): "Security analysts are often asked to help analyze that data...
Knowing if other events are correlated with the initial event... [and] understanding what systems, users, services, or other assets were involved..." Secbay underscores that logs and timestamps are key to forming an accurate incident timeline (which is exactly what we're doing by starting from the earliest alert):Exact extract (Secbay Press): "System and application logs with timestamps help create a timeline of events, aiding in understanding when specific actions occurred during the incident." Why Option B is best vs. the others B starts with the earliest suspicious identity and seeks successful API activity that would confirm compromise and explain subsequent actions (metadata access # service account actions # malware).
A is too broad initially ("all activity under project staging-01") and anchors on a VM that only appears later; it's not the best first pivot when you already have an earlier suspect identity.
C starts at the compute-instance phase (05:10) rather than the earliest authentication/API anomaly (02:00), so it's more likely to find post-compromise actions rather than the initial entry.
D anchors on a specific later VM (fd031f) and compute APIs, again likely after the initial compromise.
References (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 documents / study guides used):
Mike Chapple & David Seidl, CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (CS0-003): correlate other events with the initial event; identify involved users/systems/services Secbay Press, CompTIA CySA+ Exam Prep Guide (CS0-003): logs + timestamps build a timeline of events and support analysis of incident progression
147. Frage
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