CRISC Antworten - CRISC Exam Fragen

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ISACA CRISC Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
IT Risk Identification	26%	- Communicate risk analysis 1. Risk reporting and escalation 2. Risk register management - Analyze and classify information 1. Risk scenarios and events 2. Threat landscape and vulnerability assessment - Collect and process information 1. Risk aggregation and reporting 2. Risk taxonomy and terminology 3. Business continuity and disaster recovery
IT Risk Assessment	26%	- Assess capability maturity 1. Control assessment framework 2. Risk management maturity models - Risk analysis methodologies 1. Risk ownership and accountability 2. Qualitative and quantitative analysis - Identify control effectiveness 1. Risk and control gap analysis 2. Root cause analysis
Risk Response and Mitigation	20%	- Manage and monitor risk treatment 1. Risk response strategies 2. Third-party risk management 3. Risk appetite and tolerance - Develop and implement controls 1. Control types and classification 2. Control design and optimization
Monitoring and Reporting	28%	- Communicate risk and control status 1. Board reporting 2. Risk dashboards and reporting 3. Senior management reporting - Risk and control monitoring 1. Continuous monitoring 2. Incident management 3. Control testing and validation - Key risk indicator (KRI) development 1. KRI threshold setting 2. Performance monitoring

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ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control CRISC Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q1787-Q1792):

1787. Frage
When an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) has a reciprocal agreement, which of the following risk treatment options is being applied?

A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Transfer
D. Acceptance

Antwort: C

Begründung:
A reciprocal agreement is an agreement made by two or more organizations to use each other's resources during a disaster1. For example, two organizations with similar IT infrastructure may agree to provide backup servers or data centers for each other in case of a major disruption. By doing so, they transfer the risk of losing their IT capabilities to the other party, who agrees to share the responsibility and cost of recovery.
A reciprocal agreement is a form of risk transfer, which is one of the four risk treatment options according to ISO 270012. Risk transfer means that the organization shifts the potential negative consequences of a risk to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This reduces the organization's exposure and liability to the risk, but it does not eliminate the risk completely, as the other party may fail to fulfill their obligations or charge a high price for their services.
References = Reciprocal Agreement - Risky Thinking, ISO 27001 Risk Assessment & Risk Treatment: The Complete Guide - Advisera

1788. Frage
An organization has received notification that it is a potential victim of a cybercrime that may have
compromised sensitive customer data. What should be The FIRST course of action?

A. Invoke the incident response plan.
B. Determine the business impact.
C. Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).
D. Conduct a forensic investigation.

Antwort: A

Begründung:
The first course of action for an organization that has received notification that it is a potential victim of a
cybercrime that may have compromised sensitive customer data is to invoke the incident response plan. An
incident response plan is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines the roles and responsibilities of the
incident response team, the communication and escalation channels, the incident identification and
classification criteria, the incident containment and eradication strategies, the incident recovery and
restoration activities, and the incident documentation and reporting requirements. Invoking the incident
response plan as soon as possible is crucial to minimize the damage and disruption caused by the cybercrime,
to preserve the evidence and facilitate the investigation, and to comply with the legal andregulatory
obligations. The other options are not the first course of action, although they may be subsequent or
concurrent steps in the incident response process. Determining the business impact is a part of the incident
assessment and prioritization phase, which helps to evaluate the severity and scope of the incident and to
allocate the appropriate resources and actions. Conducting a forensic investigation is a part of the incident
analysis and evidence collection phase, which helps to identify the source and cause of the incident and to
support the legal and disciplinary actions. Invoking the business continuity plan (BCP) is a part of the incident
recovery and restoration phase, which helps to resume the normal operations and services and to mitigate the
adverse effects of the incident. References = The National Cyber Incident Response Plan (NCIRP), Cyber
Incident Response Plan | Cyber.gov.au, [Cyber Incident Response: A Framework for Preparation and
Success], [Cyber Incident Response Plan: How to Create One for Your Business]

1789. Frage
Which of the following are the MOST important risk components that must be communicated among all the stakeholders?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

A. Various risk response used in the project
B. Explanation:
The broad array of information and the major types of IT risk information that should be communicated are as follows: Expectations from risk management: They include risk strategy, policies, procedures, awareness training, uninterrupted reinforcement of principles, etc. This essential communication drives all subsequent efforts on risk management and sets the overall expectations from risk management. Current risk management capability: This allows monitoring of the status of the risk management engine in the enterprise. It is a key indicator for effective risk management and has predictive value for how well the enterprise is managing risk and reducing exposure. Status with regard to IT risk: This describes the actual status with regard to IT risk including information of risk profile of the enterprise, Key risk indicators (KRIs) to support management reporting on risk, event-loss data, root cause of loss events and options to mitigate risk.
C. Current risk management capability
D. Status of risk with regard to IT risk
E. Expectations from risk management

Antwort: B,C,D,E

Begründung:
is incorrect. Risk response is only communicated to some of the stakeholders not all, as it is irrelevant for them. It is not communicated to the stakeholders of the project like project sponsors, etc.

1790. Frage
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern related to using pseudonymization for the protection of an organization's processed privacy data?

A. Other information about the data subject can be revealed.
B. Updates to privacy data content are not allowed.
C. Individual data subjects can be re-identified.
D. Authorized users can access personal data.

Antwort: C

Begründung:
Pseudonymizationreplaces identifying fields in a data record with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms.
However, unlike full anonymization,re-identification remains possibleif the pseudonym can be matched with external or hidden reference data.
CRISC and privacy-risk guidance (aligned with GDPR principles) emphasize that:
"The primary concern when using pseudonymization as a privacy safeguard is the potential for re- identification of individual data subjects." Pseudonymized data can still be linked back to individuals if the mapping key or auxiliary datasets are compromised.
True anonymization eliminates any reasonable means of re-identification, but pseudonymization does not.
Therefore, while pseudonymization reduces exposure, it doesnot fully eliminateprivacy risk.
Options A, B, and D are not inherent to pseudonymization:
Authorized access and update restrictions are policy issues, not intrinsic to pseudonymization.
Other information disclosure (D) could occur through inference but is secondary to direct re-identification.
Hence,C. Individual data subjects can be re-identifiedis the correct and verified answer as per CRISC and GDPR-aligned data protection practices.

1791. Frage
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

A. Residual risk and risk appetite
B. Effectiveness and efficiency of controls
C. Strength of detective and preventative controls
D. Inherent risk and risk tolerance

Antwort: A

Begründung:
A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that an organization faces, along with the corresponding risk responses, risk owners, and risk indicators1. A risk profile is a useful tool for communicating and reporting the risk status and performance to the management and other stakeholders2. When developing a risk profile for management approval, the most useful information to include is the residual risk and the risk appetite, because:
* Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses3. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. Residual risk helps the management to evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and to decide whether to accept, reduce, transfer, or avoid the risk4.
* Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives5. It reflects the organization's risk culture, strategy, and priorities, and provides a basis for setting risk thresholds and targets. Risk appetite helps the management to align the risk profile with the organizational goals and values, and to ensure that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level6.
The other options are not the most useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval, because:
* Strength of detective and preventative controls is a measure of how well the controls can identify or prevent the occurrence or impact of the risk events7. It is a part of the risk response information, but it does not provide a comprehensive or holistic view of the risk profile. It does not show the residual risk or the risk appetite, which are more relevant and important for the management approval.
* Effectiveness and efficiency of controls is a measure of how well the controls achieve their intended objectives and how well they use the available resources8. It is a part of the risk performance information, but it does not provide a complete or balanced view of the risk profile. It does not show the residual risk or the risk appetite, which are more significant and meaningful for the management approval.
* Inherent risk and risk tolerance are related but different concepts from residual risk and risk appetite. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists before the implementation of risk responses3. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation or deviation from the risk appetite or the risk objectives5. They are useful for the risk assessment and analysis, but they do not provide the current or desired state of the risk profile. They do not show the residual risk or the risk appetite, which are more critical and valuable for the management approval.
References =
* Risk Profile - CIO Wiki
* Risk Profile: Definition, Example, and How to Create One
* Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
* What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
* Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
* Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
* Preventive and Detective Controls - CIO Wiki
* Control Effectiveness and Efficiency - CIO Wiki

1792. Frage
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