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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.
Topic 2
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 3
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for

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CCDS-O Best Practice - CCDS-O Examcollection Questions Answers

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q104-Q109):

NEW QUESTION # 104
In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Answer: A

Explanation:
This question applies the outpatient risk adjustment "reserve" concept: predicted cost is estimated by multiplying the member's risk factor contribution by a baseline per-member-per-month (PMPM) amount, then annualizing. The morbid obesity HCC factor is 0.186, and PMPM is $800. First compute the monthly cost impact: $800 × 0.186 = $148.80 per month per patient. Convert to yearly: $148.80 × 12 = $1,785.60 per patient per year. The year-over-year increase in patients with morbid obesity documentation is 11,000 - 10,000 = 1,000 additional patients. Multiply the annual per-patient impact by the additional patient count: $1,785.60 × 1,000 = $1,785,600. Outpatient CDI programs emphasize that improving documentation specificity (when clinically supported) can change whether an HCC is captured, which can affect RAF-based projections and resource planning. However, documentation must still be accurate, supported, and reflect conditions assessed/managed during the encounter.


NEW QUESTION # 105
A patient is evaluated in the clinic. Documentation states: "HIV positive, gravida 1 at 24 weeks." Which of the following conditions will be coded and in which sequence based on the documentation?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In outpatient coding, selection and sequencing must follow ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines, including obstetric chapter rules. When HIV is documented in a pregnant patient, the pregnancy complication code is sequenced first because the pregnancy status frames the encounter and drives the obstetric complication coding structure. The phrase "HIV positive" (without documentation of HIV-related illness or "HIV disease") is treated as asymptomatic HIV infection status, which aligns with the status concept rather than active HIV disease. Therefore, the correct approach is to code pregnancy complicated by asymptomatic HIV first (obstetric complication category), followed by the HIV status code to fully describe the condition affecting the pregnancy. Options that place "pregnancy" second do not follow obstetric sequencing conventions, and options that assume "HIV disease" overstep the documentation because "HIV positive" alone does not confirm symptomatic HIV disease. Outpatient CDI best practice would be to query if the provider intends HIV disease versus asymptomatic status, but based strictly on the given statement, pregnancy with asymptomatic HIV is most appropriate.


NEW QUESTION # 106
An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary's risk score?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Medicaid risk adjustment models generally calculate risk using two major categories of inputs: demographics and diagnosis data. Demographic factors commonly include gender and indicators tied to Medicaid status/eligibility (for example, eligibility category, dual status, disability-related eligibility, or other program qualifiers depending on the state/model). These demographic elements adjust expected cost and are foundational to the risk score even before considering diagnoses. By contrast, race is not a standard input for calculating Medicaid risk scores in typical risk adjustment methodologies, so options that include race are not supported. Likewise, "patient noncompliance" is primarily a clinical and quality-of-care issue and may affect treatment outcomes, but it is not itself a standard risk-score driver unless it is documented as a reportable, supported diagnosis that the specific model recognizes (and most models don't directly risk-adjust for nonadherence codes). Therefore, among the options given, Medicaid status and gender are the most clearly valid factors that impact the beneficiary's risk score.


NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following acronyms is often used in considering reportability of conditions?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, MEAT is a commonly taught framework used to determine whether a condition is sufficiently supported as reportable for a specific encounter. MEAT stands for Monitor, Evaluate, Assess/Address, and Treat. The concept is that diagnoses should not simply be copied forward on a problem list; they should be tied to provider work and clinical relevance during the visit. "Monitor" includes reviewing status, trends, or test results related to the condition. "Evaluate" includes ordering or interpreting studies, considering disease progression, or documenting response to therapy. "Assess/Address" includes documenting stability, exacerbation, or risk and making a plan (education, counseling, referrals). "Treat" includes medications, procedures, or other therapeutic interventions. Using MEAT helps CDI staff educate providers to document the current status and management of chronic diseases, supports accurate coding and risk adjustment, and reduces denials by showing medical necessity. OPPS, MACRA, and RADV are important regulatory/payment terms, but they are not the standard acronym used to assess encounter-level reportability.


NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following lab values, when trended for greater than 3 months, indicates an objective measure of chronic kidney damage?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined by evidence of kidney damage or reduced kidney function that persists for at least three months. An estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR/GFR) below 60 mL/min sustained over that timeframe is an objective indicator of chronically decreased renal function and supports CKD identification and staging in the outpatient record. This is why outpatient CDI programs frequently use trended eGFR as a clinical indicator to prompt documentation of CKD stage (e.g., stage 3a/3b, stage 4, etc.) when appropriate. BNP >1000 is more aligned with heart failure severity/volume status rather than kidney damage. BUN <12 is within/near normal and does not indicate renal impairment (elevated BUN may be seen with renal dysfunction but is less specific and affected by hydration, diet, GI bleed). Glucose >100 is a screening indicator for impaired fasting glucose/prediabetes but does not, by itself, establish chronic kidney damage. Therefore, sustained GFR <60 is the best objective lab-based measure of chronic kidney damage over time.


NEW QUESTION # 109
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