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ECCouncil 312-97 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • DevSecOps Pipeline - Plan Stage: This module covers the planning phase, emphasizing security requirement identification and threat modeling. It highlights cross-functional collaboration between development, security, and operations teams to ensure alignment with security goals.
Topic 2
  • DevSecOps Pipeline - Operate and Monitor Stage: This module focuses on securing operational environments and implementing continuous monitoring for security incidents. It covers logging, monitoring, incident response, and SIEM tools for maintaining security visibility and threat identification.
Topic 3
  • Introduction to DevSecOps: This module covers foundational DevSecOps concepts, focusing on integrating security into the DevOps lifecycle through automated, collaborative approaches. It introduces key components, tools, and practices while discussing adoption benefits, implementation challenges, and strategies for establishing a security-first culture.
Topic 4
  • DevSecOps Pipeline - Code Stage: This module discusses secure coding practices and security integration within the development process and IDE. Developers learn to write secure code using static code analysis tools and industry-standard secure coding guidelines.

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ECCouncil EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE) Sample Questions (Q36-Q41):

NEW QUESTION # 36
(Scott Morrison is working as a senior DevSecOps engineer at SUTRE SOFT Pvt. Ltd. His organization develops software and applications for IoT devices. Scott created a user story; he then created abuser stories under the user story. After that, he created threat scenarios under the abuser story, and then he created test cases for the threat scenarios. After defining the YAML, Scott would like to push the user-story driven threat model to the ThreatPlaybook server. Which of the following command Scott should use?.)

Answer: B

Explanation:
ThreatPlaybook uses the playbook apply feature command to push user-story-driven threat models to the server. The -f flag specifies the path to the YAML file containing the defined user stories, abuser stories, and threat scenarios, while the -p flag specifies the target project. Option C correctly combines these parameters.
The -y flag is invalid in this context, and options that misuse -t instead of -p do not correctly identify the project destination. Executing this command during the Plan stage enables teams to integrate threat modeling early, ensuring security risks are identified and addressed before development and deployment proceed.


NEW QUESTION # 37
(William McDougall has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in Sacramento, California. His organization has been using Microsoft Azure DevOps service to develop software products securely and quickly. To take proactive decisions related to security issues and to reduce the overall security risk, William would like to integrate ThreatModeler with Azure Pipelines. How can ThreatModeler be integrated with Azure Pipelines and made a part of William's organization DevSecOps pipeline?)

Answer: A

Explanation:
ThreatModeler integration with Azure Pipelines is achieved using abidirectional API, which allows automated and continuous interaction between the pipeline and the threat modeling platform. This bidirectional communication enables Azure Pipelines to trigger threat modeling activities while also receiving results, risk scores, and actionable insights back from ThreatModeler. Such feedback loops are critical for proactive security decision-making during the Plan stage of DevSecOps. Unidirectional APIs or UI-based integrations limit automation and do not support continuous feedback, making them unsuitable for pipeline- driven workflows. UI-based approaches also introduce manual steps, which conflict with DevSecOps principles of automation and consistency. By using a bidirectional API, William's organization can embed threat modeling into the planning process, identify architectural risks early, and ensure security considerations are continuously enforced as part of the pipeline.
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NEW QUESTION # 38
(Walter O'Brien recently joined as a junior DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in Lansing, Michigan. His organization develops robotic process automation software for various clients stretched across the globe. Walter's team leader asked him to configure username and user email for git in VS Code.
Therefore, he opened Visual Studio Code IDE console, then clicked on Terminal tab and selected New terminal. Which of the following command should Walter execute in the terminal to configure username and user email for git in VS Code?)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Git requires developers to configure their identity using two specific configuration keys:user.nameanduser.
email. These values are embedded into every commit and are essential for accountability, auditing, and collaboration. The correct configuration syntax uses dot-separated key names (user.name and user.email) and the --global flag to apply the settings across all repositories on the system. Among the provided options, only optionBuses the correct configuration keys. The other options use invalid key names such as user-name, user_name, or incorrect command structure. Although the options display a minor command typo ("get config" instead of git config), the question is clearly testing knowledge of the correct Git configuration keys.
Configuring Git identity in the Code stage ensures accurate commit history and supports traceability across the DevSecOps pipeline.


NEW QUESTION # 39
David, a security analyst, is responsible for identifying vulnerabilities that arise due to real-time interactions with an application. His organization requires security testing that can analyze how authentication and authorization mechanisms handle requests during execution. Which security testing approach should David implement, and in which phase should it be conducted?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerabilities arising from real-time interaction with a running application-including how authentication and authorization handle requests during execution-are found with Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST), performed in the Test phase against a running build. SAST examines static code, and penetration testing typically occurs later against staging/production-like targets, not as the standard Test-phase approach.


NEW QUESTION # 40
Peter McCarthy is working in TetraVerse Soft Solution Pvt. Ltd. as a DevSecOps engineer. His organization develops customized software products and web applications. To develop software products quickly and securely, his organization has been using AWS cloud-based services, including AWS DevOps services. Peter would like to use CloudMapper to examine the AWS cloud environment and perform auditing for security issues. Which of the following privileges should Peter possess in order to collect information about the AWS account?

Answer: C

Explanation:
CloudMapper requires read-only access to AWS resources in order to collect metadata, visualize architectures, and perform security analysis without modifying infrastructure. The AWS-managed policy SecurityAudit provides permissions to view security-related configuration across services, while ViewOnlyAccess allows read-only access to AWS resources more broadly. Together, these policies enable CloudMapper to gather comprehensive information about the AWS environment without granting write privileges. The other options either reference invalid policy names, incorrect formatting, or excessive permissions such as AWSLambdaFullAccess, which are unnecessary and violate least-privilege principles. Granting SecurityAudit and ViewOnlyAccess aligns with secure auditing practices during the Operate and Monitor stage.


NEW QUESTION # 41
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