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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: System Administration and Troubleshooting | - Troubleshooting common FortiEDR issues - System monitoring and health checks |
| Topic 2: Forensics and Investigation | - Event analysis and telemetry review - Endpoint investigation workflows |
| Topic 3: Policy Configuration and Management | - Policy tuning and exclusions - Prevention and detection policies |
| Topic 4: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | - System architecture and deployment models - FortiEDR components overview (agents, management console, collectors) |
| Topic 5: Installation and Deployment | - Server and console installation requirements - Agent deployment and onboarding |
| Topic 6: Threat Detection and Response | - Incident detection and alert handling - Automated response actions and remediation |
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NEW QUESTION # 13
Which two statements correctly describe the IoT probing process on FortiEDR? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address .
This directly supports option B .
Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.
Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.
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NEW QUESTION # 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the threat hunting event details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true?
(Choose two answers)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D .
The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target
. It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .
The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam's intended wording.
Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.
Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Refer to the exhibit.
An event exception is shown. Which two statements about the exception are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception
/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.
Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.
Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide's FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states "All the Raw Data Items are covered." A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.
Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 16
When implementing an application block policy in FortiEDR, which three actions, in order, reflect the correct operational sequence? (Choose three.) Select an action in the left column and hold and drag it to a blank position in the column on the right. Place the three correct actions in order, starting with the first action at the top of the column. After you place an action, you can move it again if you want to change your answer before proceeding to the next question. You must drop three actions in the work area.
Select and drag the screen divider to change the viewable area of the source and work areas.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Add applications to the application control manager.
Assign collector groups to the policy.
Enable the blocklist rule on the application control policy.
"The applications must be added to the Application Control Manager under the user-defined group"
"Collector groups must be assigned to this policy"
"The blocklist rule must be enabled on the Application Control Policy." The correct sequence is to add applications to Application Control Manager, assign the relevant Collector Groups to the Application Control policy, and enable the blocklist rule. Application Control prevents designated executables from launching, whereas Communication Control regulates outbound application communication. FortiEDR automatically places manually added applications in its User-defined group, so creating a separate application group is unnecessary. Collector Groups receive policy assignments directly; application groups are not assigned to individual Collectors. Newly added applications are disabled by default and must also be enabled for blocking, unless the administrator has changed the default application state.
Reference: FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide, pages 216-224.
NEW QUESTION # 17
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 18
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