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NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, meaning that the difficulty of the questions adapts to the test-taker's performance. NCLEX-RN exam consists of a minimum of 75 questions and a maximum of 265 questions, with the number of questions varying depending on the test-taker's performance. NCLEX-RN Exam covers a wide range of topics, including pharmacology, patient care, nursing ethics, and health promotion.
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The NCLEX-RN® exam is the licensing exam for entry-level nurses. This exam covers the required knowledge, skills, and attitudes to become a licensed registered nurse in the United States. The NCLEX-RN® exam is taken by nurses who are preparing to be licensed as registered nurses. It is taken after graduation from an approved nursing program. Students must have been accepted by an approved school. NCLEX certifications is the pathway to the NCSBN Board Certification in Nursing. ConfidentNursing (CN) certification is the pathway to the Certified Nurse Aide (CNA) credential. Nurse assesses(NARN), and the CNA credential is the pathway to the Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) credential. Arterial puncture is the pathway to the Registered Respiratory Therapist(RRT). The exam is designed to test your knowledge of the basic concepts of nursing as they apply to nursing practice. NCLEX-RN Dumps is study the required knowledge, skills, and attitudes for the NCLEX-RN® exam. Exam files are made available on the NCSBN website, which is a free service to all who wish to take the exam. Exam sources are included in each file.
NEW QUESTION # 198
The physician orders medication for a client's unpleasant side effects from the haloperidol. The most appropriate drug at this time is:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, or antianxiety agent, that potentiates the effects of _-aminobutyric acid in the CNS, which is not the CNS neurotransmitter EPS. (B) Triazolam is a benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic whose action is mediated in the limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic levels of the CNS by Y-aminobutyric acid.
(C) Benztropine is an anticholinergic agent, and the drug of choice for blocking CNS synaptic response, which causes EPS. (D) Thiothixene is an antipsychotic and neuroleptic drug that blocks dopamine neurotransmission at the CNS synapses, thereby causing EPS.
NEW QUESTION # 199
A client is to be discharged from the hospital and is to continue taking warfarin 2.5 mg po bid. Which of the following should be included in her discharge teaching concerning the warfarin therapy?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Warfarin must always be taken exactly as directed. Clients should be instructed never to skip or double up on their dosage. (B) Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation, which would potentiate the effects of the coumadin. (C) Healthcare providers need to be aware of persons on warfarin therapy prior to the initiation of any diagnostic tests and/or surgery to help prevent bleeding complications. (D) An electric razor should be used to prevent accidental cutting, which can lead to bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 200
At 30 weeks' gestation, a client is admitted to the unit in premature labor. Her physician orders that an IV be started with 500 mL D5W mixed with 150 mg of ritodrine stat. The RN prepares the IV solution with the medication. The RN knows that clients receiving the medication ritodrine IV should be observed closely for which one of the following side effects:
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A)
Ritodrine is a sympathomimetic 2-adrenergic agonist that can cause an elevation of blood glucose and plasma insulin in pregnant women. Hyperglycemia can occur in women with abnormal carbohydrate metabolism because of their inability to release more insulin.
(B)
Hypokalemia can occur resulting from the action of the _-mimetics. It results from a displacement of the extracellular potassium into the intracellular space. (C) Ritodrine causes vasodilation of vessel walls, which can lead to hypotension. The body compensates by increasing heart rate and pulse pressure. (D) There is a lowering of serum iron resulting from the action of _-mimetics to activate hematopoiesis.
NEW QUESTION # 201
A client suffering from schizophrenia has been taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 6 months. On one of his follow-up visits to the mental health center, the nurse reports to the physician that he has developed tardive dyskinesia. Which of the following symptoms might she have observed in the client to support this conclusion?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) These symptoms are found in clients with neuroleptic malignant syndrome. (B) These symptoms are found in clients with tardive dyskinesia. (C) These are normal side effects found in clients taking antipsychotic medications. (D) These are also normal side effects found in clients taking antipsychotic medications.
NEW QUESTION # 202
A 29-year-old client delivered her fifth child by the Lamaze method and developed a postpartal hemorrhage in the recovery room. What are the initial symptoms of shock that she may experience?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Early shock does not exhibit the symptom of marked elevation in blood pressure. A narrowing of the pulse pressure is indicative of early shock. (B) Anuria is a clinical finding in late shock. (C) All of these clinical findings are congruent with early shock. (D) Absence of urinary output is a clinical finding in the late phase of shock.
NEW QUESTION # 203
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