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| Certification Vendor: | ASHRM (American Society for Healthcare Risk Management) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management Exam |
| Exam Number: | CPHRM |
| Passing Score: | Criterion-referenced, no fixed numerical score published |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Exam Price: | $275 (ASHRM members), $425 (non-members) |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice questions, Computer-based |
| Real Exam Qty: | 110 (100 scored, 10 unscored pre-test items) |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Recommended Training: | CPHRM Exam Prep Course |
| Exam Registration: | ASHRM Official CPHRM Page PSI Testing Registration |
| Sample Questions: | ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Onsite at PSI testing centers or live remote proctored online |
| Pre Condition: | One of: Bachelor's degree + 5 years healthcare experience; Associate degree + 7 years; High school diploma + 9 years; plus 3,000 hours or 50% of job duties in healthcare risk management within last 3 years |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.ashrm.org/education/cphrm |
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NEW QUESTION # 82
An appropriate way to complete the verification read-back of a complete order, as required by The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals, is to have the person receiving the order
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals, the read-back process is designed to ensure accurate communication of verbal or telephone orders. The correct process requires the person receiving the order to first write down the complete order and then read it back to the prescribing practitioner for verification.
Writing the order down before reading it back reduces reliance on memory and decreases the risk of omission or transcription errors. The practitioner who gave the order must then confirm that the read-back is accurate.
This closed-loop communication process enhances patient safety and reduces medication and treatment errors associated with miscommunication.
Immediately repeating the information without documenting it does not meet the full verification requirement, as the written record must be confirmed. A witness is not required under the standard. Documenting the date and time is necessary for proper charting but does not constitute completion of the read-back verification itself.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize clear, structured communication processes. Therefore, writing the information down before reading it back is the appropriate method to complete the verification process.
NEW QUESTION # 83
The risk manager is called by an administrator and told that a member of the pharmacy staff was arrested last night for illegal distribution of controlled substances. Which of the following recommendations should the risk manager make to administration?
* Verify the pre-employment background check.
* Inventory controlled drug stock.
* Interview other pharmacy staff.
* Notify the National Practitioner Data Bank.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, when a pharmacy staff member is arrested for illegal distribution of controlled substances, the organization must focus on immediate operational and patient safety concerns.
Verifying the pre-employment background check ensures compliance with hiring policies and identifies whether due diligence was properly conducted.
An immediate inventory of controlled drug stock is essential to detect diversion, identify discrepancies, and comply with DEA requirements for controlled substance accountability. Prompt reconciliation of medication records protects patient safety and mitigates regulatory exposure.
Interviewing other pharmacy staff supports investigation of potential diversion patterns, internal control weaknesses, and workflow vulnerabilities. This step aligns with system-based risk management and prevention of further loss.
Notification to the National Practitioner Data Bank is not automatically required based solely on an arrest.
NPDB reporting typically involves certain professional review actions, licensure restrictions, or clinical privilege actions, not merely criminal charges unless formal disciplinary action occurs.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize safeguarding controlled substances, regulatory compliance, and internal investigation. Therefore, verifying background checks, inventorying stock, and interviewing staff are appropriate recommendations.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles recognized by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a properly executed advance directive carries legal authority when a patient lacks decision-making capacity. The physician has assessed that the patient is terminally ill and lacks capacity, triggering activation of the advance directive. If the directive clearly states refusal of life-prolonging treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration, those wishes must be honored in accordance with state law and the Patient Self-Determination Act framework.
Patient autonomy is a foundational ethical and legal principle in health care. Once capacity is lost, previously expressed wishes through a valid advance directive govern care decisions. Family members do not have authority to override a valid directive unless legal defects or ambiguity exist. Their disagreement does not negate the patient's documented preferences.
Although ethics consultation can be helpful in managing conflict, the directive here is described as properly executed and clear. Additional determination of capacity is unnecessary because the physician has already made that assessment.
Risk management objectives emphasize compliance with advance directive statutes, respect for patient autonomy, and reduction of liability through adherence to documented patient wishes. Therefore, the appropriate advice is to support the physician in honoring the advance directive.
NEW QUESTION # 85
An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the implantation of a medical device that lacks FDA approval and Institutional Review Board oversight presents significant legal and regulatory violations. Use of an unapproved device outside of an approved investigational protocol may violate federal regulations governing human subject research and medical device approval processes.
The risk manager's primary responsibility is to immediately mitigate regulatory and liability exposure.
Because the procedure is scheduled for the next day, urgent intervention is required. Contacting the FDA would not resolve the immediate risk. Verifying informed consent is insufficient, as patient consent cannot legitimize use of an unapproved device outside regulatory pathways. Calling a special IRB meeting would not retroactively authorize an unapproved device without appropriate investigational device exemption processes.
Escalating the issue to the chief of surgery to halt or cancel the procedure is the most appropriate immediate step. This ensures that organizational leadership addresses the compliance violation before patient harm occurs. Risk management objectives emphasize proactive prevention of regulatory breaches, protection of patient safety, and preservation of institutional integrity. Therefore, stopping the procedure is the correct and immediate action.
NEW QUESTION # 86
What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A frequent HIPAA Privacy Rule violation isimpermissible access or disclosureof protected health information-commonly including employee "snooping" (accessing records of family, friends, coworkers, or celebrities without a work-related need) and other unauthorized disclosures. Risk management objectives focus on preventing these events through role-based access, audit logs with active monitoring, sanctions policies consistently enforced, workforce training, and a culture that treats privacy as patient safety. Even when disclosures are not malicious, "minimum necessary" failures, misdirected faxes/emails, and unsecured devices can create reportable breaches. Effective prevention is layered: technical controls (access restrictions), administrative controls (policies, training), and detection/response (auditing, rapid mitigation). Privacy violations are high-risk because they harm patients, trigger regulatory action, and damage trust and reputation.
NEW QUESTION # 87
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