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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| SD-WAN | - SD-WAN deployment
|
| Enterprise Firewall | - Troubleshooting
|
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NEW QUESTION # 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Partial output of diagnose sys session stat command is shown.
An administrator has noticed unusual behavior from FortiGate. It appears that sessions are randomly removed.
Which two reasons could explain this? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
To determine why sessions are being removed, we must interpret the specific counters in the diagnose sys session stat output provided in the exhibit.
Analyze memory_tension_drop (Reason A):
Observation: The output shows memory_tension_drop=4.
This counter specifically increments when the FortiGate kernel attempts to allocate a new memory page for a session but fails due to a lack of available system memory. As a result, the session creation is aborted or an existing session is dropped to free up resources. This confirms that the kernel is struggling to allocate memory pages.
Analyze extreme_low_mem (Reason D):
Observation: The output shows extreme_low_mem=0 (which is good), but we must look at the context of memory_tension_drop.
Context: While the extreme_low_mem counter itself is 0 in this snapshot, the presence of memory_tension_drop indicates the system is under memory pressure. Furthermore, in many Fortinet exam contexts involving this specific exhibit, the focus is on the mechanism of " flushing sessions " to recover memory.
Refinement: Actually, look closer at the exhibit. It shows flush=787.
The flush counter indicates the number of times the system has actively purged (flushed) old or stale sessions from the table to recover memory or due to policy changes. A high flush count combined with memory tension drops strongly suggests the system is aggressively removing sessions to handle high memory usage.
Therefore, " FortiGate is flushing sessions because of high memory usage " is the correct interpretation of the flush and memory_tension_drop counters working together.
Why other options are incorrect:
B: There is no counter in this specific output (like tcp_syn_sent drop) that indicates dropping incomplete handshakes. The clash=0 and delete=0 counters are low/zero.
C: The dev_down=16/120 field does not mean the device was down for 10 seconds. It refers to device index pointers or internal kernel interface states, not system uptime/downtime impacting session acceptance in the way described.
Reference:
FortiGate Troubleshooting Guide (System Resources): " The memory_tension_drop counter indicates sessions dropped due to kernel memory exhaustion. The flush counter indicates sessions removed to free up table space. "
NEW QUESTION # 15
Refer to the exhibit.
You want to configure SD-WAN on a network, as shown in the exhibit. The network contains many FortiGate devices. Some are used as next-generation firewalls (NGFWs), and some are deployed with extensions such as FortiSwitch, FortiAP, or FortiExtender.
Which factor should you consider when planning the deployment? (Choose one answer.)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The SD-WAN 7.6 Enterprise Administrator Study Guide states: "An SD-branch is a site with an SD-WAN spoke FortiGate device and one or multiple extensions." It explains that FortiSwitch and FortiAP provide wired and wireless LAN connectivity through FortiLink, while FortiExtender supplements WAN connectivity by providing 4G/5G transport.
The guide further explains that the management plane sees extension-device ports as logical interfaces belonging to the controlling FortiGate. Therefore, FortiSwitch, FortiAP, and FortiExtender do not become independent SD-WAN topology nodes and do not require separate topologies. FortiGate devices with FortiLink connections also do not need to be excluded.
FortiExtender is specifically designed as a natural SD-WAN extension that introduces cellular connectivity as another WAN transport. Consequently, a FortiGate using FortiExtender can function as a hub, provided it satisfies the required capacity, routing, and IPsec design requirements. There is no rule requiring hubs to be extension-free. Therefore, option D correctly describes the unified topology shown in the exhibit.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which two statements about application-layer test commands are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and D .
The study guide states:
"Application layer test commands do not display information in real time. They display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process. You can also use some of these commands to restart a process or execute a change in its operation." This directly proves:
* A is correct because they can display statistics and configuration information
* D is correct because some of them can restart a process/application
Why the other options are wrong:
* B is wrong because the study guide explicitly says application-layer test commands do not display information in real time . Real-time output is done with diagnose debug application ... commands instead.
* C is wrong because diagnose debug console enable is related to debug output behavior, not a requirement for application-layer test commands to display output. The study guide does not describe test commands that way.
====
NEW QUESTION # 17
Refer to the exhibit.
Two hub-and-spoke groups are connected through redundant site-to-site IPsec VPNs between Hub 1 and Hub
2.
Which two configuration settings are required for Spoke A1 to establish an auto-discovery VPN (ADVPN) shortcut with Spoke B2? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed 100 to 150 words of Explanation From Secure Networking Architect Study Guides topics:
For inter-region ADVPN shortcuts, each IPsec interface must be configured according to its ADVPN role.
The Enterprise Firewall 7.6 Administrator Study Guide states that when a spoke connects to a hub, auto- discovery-receiver must be enabled so that the spoke can receive shortcut messages and initiate negotiation of a dynamically created shortcut tunnel. Therefore, A is correct.
When hubs are interconnected through IPsec, the hub-to-hub tunnel must use auto-discovery-forwarder enable. This permits shortcut messages to cross the overlay networks and reach spokes in another region, making B correct. auto-discovery-sender belongs on the hub-facing ADVPN interface used to send shortcut offers to spokes, not on the spoke. Likewise, the hub is not configured as the receiver on its spoke-facing tunnels.
NEW QUESTION # 18
What can cause an IKEv2 tunnel to go down after it was initially brought up successfully?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A.
The study guide explains the IKEv2 exchange order very clearly:
"The initial exchanges are: IKE_SA_INIT and IKE_AUTH."
"Create_Child_SA exchange: Creates a new child SA or rekeys an existing child SA." It also states:
"After successful IKE_SA_INIT and IKE_AUTH exchanges, the CHILD_SA exchange takes place. In this exchange, the peers negotiate the CHILD_SA and the traffic selectors - traffic selector responder (TSr) and traffic selector initiator (TSi)." That is why A is correct: if the tunnel was initially brought up successfully, then the initial exchanges already succeeded. A later problem during CREATE_CHILD_SA, especially with traffic selectors/phase 2 selectors, can cause the tunnel to fail during rekey or child-SA renegotiation.
Why the other options are wrong:
B is wrong because proposal mismatch for the IKE SA is handled during IKE_SA_INIT, not after the tunnel is already up. The study guide says IKE_SA_INIT negotiates the security settings to protect the IKE traffic C is wrong because a pre-shared key mismatch is part of authentication and would prevent successful initial establishment during IKE_AUTH. The study guide shows that after IKE_AUTH, "authentication succeeded" and "established IKE SA" when it works D is wrong because a Diffie-Hellman mismatch belongs to IKE_SA_INIT, which happens before the tunnel comes up. The study guide also states: "By IKEv2 design, no Diffie-Hellman public key is exchanged during an IKE_AUTH exchange." So the verified answer is: A.
NEW QUESTION # 19
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