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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Health Advocate
|
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NEW QUESTION # 45
A 37-year-old woman presents to your clinic with frequent palpitations. She has no other symptoms and is quite active. Physical examination and resting electrocardiogram findings are normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The most appropriate next step for a patient with intermittent palpitations and a normal ECG is Holter monitoring (or event monitoring). This can capture and correlate symptoms with cardiac rhythm.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, "Palpitations":
"Holter or event monitoring is indicated when the initial ECG is normal but the patient has episodic symptoms such as palpitations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-2: Arrhythmia):
"Candidates must use ambulatory ECG monitoring to investigate intermittent palpitations when resting ECG is unremarkable." Echocardiogram (A) assesses structural issues but not rhythm. #-blockers (B) should not be started without diagnosis. Stress testing (D) is for ischemia.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 0, comes to your office for contraception counselling, specifically about insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. She has a past history of breast cancer and is presently on tamoxifen. Which one of the following is the best advice for your patient?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) is generally contraindicated in current or recent breast cancer due to the progestin component, but may be considered in selectpatients on tamoxifen, especially if non-hormonal options are unsuitable. Consultation with the oncologist is required to evaluate risks and benefits.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Contraception in Special Populations":
"Levonorgestrel IUDs are generally avoided in patients with a history of hormone-sensitive cancers; however, decisions should be made collaboratively with oncology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-2: Contraception):
"Candidates must tailor contraceptive advice to patients with medical comorbidities, including cancer survivors." Irregular bleeding (A) is a common but not contraindicating side effect. No pre-procedure antibiotics (D) are typically needed. The IUD does not cause infertility (E). Risk of recurrence (C) is unconfirmed and must be individualized.
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NEW QUESTION # 47
A 42-year-old man comes to your family practice. He has started seeing a reflexologist to help manage his chronic back pain. He presents to you a letter from the reflexologist outlining the weekly necessary treatments, each costing $300, and a list of blood tests for the patient to have done. The patient asks you to order the laboratory testing and send the results to his "other doctor." Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Physicians should order investigations only when clinically indicated based on their own assessment and an evidence-based differential diagnosis, not solely at the request of a non-physician practitioner. The appropriate next step is to decline to order the requested tests as written and perform (or arrange) a proper evaluation of the patient's chronic back pain, including red-flag screening, functional impact, and prior work- up/treatments. This aligns with MCCQE objectives on stewardship of health resources and professional accountability: unnecessary testing can cause harm (false positives, downstream procedures) and misuses publicly funded services. Sending results to a reflexologist as "other doctor" is also inappropriate without confirming the person's role, ensuring relevance to care, and obtaining appropriate patient consent for disclosure; even with consent, the physician should not facilitate non-indicated testing. Reporting (A/B) or directing the patient to stop (E) is premature; the initial focus should be patient-centred care, education about evidence-based options, and collaborative planning while respecting patient autonomy and addressing potential safety concerns.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of dysuria and right flank pain. Upon arrival, she is quite unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/38 mm Hg, heart rate
130/min, respiratory rate 24/min, temperature 39.4 °C.
Due to difficulty obtaining peripheral access, a central line is inserted. There is a lot of ongoing bleeding around the line insertion site. Her blood work shows:
White blood cell count: 19.8 × 10#/L (4-10)
Hemoglobin: 101 g/L (123-157)
Platelets: 85 × 10#/L (130-400)
Blood film: schistocytes
INR: 1.9 (0.9-1.2)
Fibrinogen: < 1 g/L (2-4)
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her ongoing bleeding?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient is in septic shock, likely from pyelonephritis, with hypotension, tachycardia, and fever. Her laboratory findings demonstrate thrombocytopenia (platelets 85 × 10#/L), elevated INR, very low fibrinogen (
< 1 g/L), and schistocytes on blood film, along with active bleeding from the central line site. These findings are classic for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing DIC as a complication of severe sepsis. In DIC, systemic activation of coagulation leads to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of platelets and clotting factors (consumptive coagulopathy), resulting in both thrombosis and bleeding. Low fibrinogen and prolonged INR are key distinguishing features.
ITP causes isolated thrombocytopenia without coagulation abnormalities. TTP presents with thrombocytopenia and schistocytes but typically has normal coagulation studies. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia requires prior heparin exposure and does not cause elevated INR or low fibrinogen.
Vitamin K deficiency causes prolonged INR but does not produce thrombocytopenia or schistocytes.
Thus, DIC secondary to sepsis is the most likely cause of her bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 49
You are covering for your colleague who is on vacation this week. You receive the results from an ultrasonography that had been ordered for a 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0. The ultrasonography-estimated fetal weight is below the fifth percentile for 30 weeks' gestation; gestational age was confirmed by an earlier ultrasonogram. The amniotic fluid volume is within normal range. Her first child's birth weight was 2800 g at full term. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
An estimated fetal weight below the 5th percentile at 30 weeks is concerning for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). This warrants prompt evaluation of fetal well-being via biophysical profile and Doppler assessment. The patient should be referred for further fetal assessment immediately to rule out placental insufficiency or other complications.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Fetal Growth Restriction":
"EFW < 10th percentile, especially < 5th, warrants further evaluation including Doppler studies and biophysical profile. Immediate assessment is warranted to determine fetal well-being." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-4: Antepartum Surveillance):
"Candidates must initiate urgent assessment in cases of abnormal fetal growth to reduce perinatal morbidity." Delaying care (B) is inappropriate. Reassurance (A) is unsafe. ASA (D) is preventative, not corrective.
Doppler (E) is important but should be coordinated through obstetrical triage.
NEW QUESTION # 50
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