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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Incident Response and Management	24%	- Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 2. Cyber Kill Chain 3. MITRE ATT&CK - Incident Response Techniques 1. Isolation and escalation 2. Restoration 3. Alerts, notifications, and triage 4. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 5. Incident response and communication plans 6. Playbooks and roles 7. Training and exercises 8. Root cause analysis 9. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 10. Remediation and verification 11. Evidence gathering and preservation 12. Corrective action development - Incident Response Process 1. Eradication 2. Preparation 3. Recovery 4. Containment 5. Detection 6. Post-incident activities 7. Analysis
Topic 2: Reporting and Communication	16%	- Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Metrics and key performance indicators 2. Vulnerability scan reports 3. Compliance findings 4. Action plans 5. Risk scorecards 6. Inhibitors to remediation 7. Stakeholder identification and communication - Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Metrics and key performance indicators 2. Communication plan 3. Shift and incident handover 4. Operational security awareness 5. Post-incident reporting 6. Internal threat intelligence report 7. Executive summary 8. Incident declaration and escalation
Topic 3: Vulnerability Management	26%	- Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Vulnerability scanners 2. Multipurpose tools 3. Network scanning and mapping 4. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 5. Web application scanners 6. Breach attack simulation tools - Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 2. Risk concepts 3. Control types 4. Control functions 5. Application security 6. Risk management strategies 7. Third-party risk - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Mitigation strategies 2. Context awareness 3. Validation of remediation 4. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 5. Scoring methods - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Planning considerations 2. Scan types 3. Discovery 4. Security baseline scanning 5. Asset inventory
Topic 4: Security Operations	34%	- System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Device management concepts 2. Operating system concepts 3. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 4. Critical infrastructure concepts 5. Encryption techniques 6. Data protection concepts 7. Logging concepts 8. Identity and access management 9. Network architecture concepts - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Log analysis and SIEM 2. User and entity behavior analysis 3. Domain and IP reputation 4. File analysis 5. Endpoint security 6. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 7. Threat intelligence platforms 8. Packet analysis 9. File formats 10. Decoding and parsing 11. Sandboxing 12. Email analysis 13. Programming and scripting languages - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Application-related indicators 2. Cloud-related indicators 3. Identity-based indicators 4. Network-related indicators 5. Unauthorized configuration 6. Host-related indicators 7. Social engineering attacks 8. Email-related attacks - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Confidence-level impacts 2. Cyber deception 3. Threat actors 4. Indicators of compromise 5. Collection methods and sources 6. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 7. Threat modeling 8. Threat mapping - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Streamline operations 2. Data enrichment 3. Standardize processes 4. Technology and tool integration 5. Automation and orchestration - Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI risks 2. AI governance 3. AI use cases

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q15-Q20):

NEW QUESTION # 15
Before merging with a software company, the acquiring company's legal team requires a detailed software scan to determine if all code base is using open-source or paid licensed libraries. The vulnerability management analyst needs to provide this report.
Which of the following scan methods will best meet this requirement?

A. Runtime application self-protection (RASP)
B. Software composition analysis (SCA)
C. Dynamic application security testing (DAST)
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan
E. Static application security testing (SAST)

Answer: B

Explanation:
Software Composition Analysis (SCA) is specifically designed to identify third-party and open-source components incorporated into software. It can enumerate libraries and dependencies, identify their versions, associate components with known vulnerabilities, and provide licensing information. This directly satisfies the legal team's requirement to determine whether the codebase contains open-source or commercially licensed libraries.
CISA's software supply-chain guidance recognizes software composition analysis and software bills of materials as mechanisms for obtaining visibility into software components. CISA guidance also notes that SBOM information can include both open-source and commercial third-party software and licensing information.
SAST examines source or compiled code for security weaknesses such as unsafe functions, data-flow problems, or coding vulnerabilities, but dependency licensing is not its primary purpose. DAST tests a running application from the outside and generally cannot inventory the complete component dependency tree. RASP operates within a running application to detect or prevent attacks. Credentialed infrastructure scanning identifies system-level vulnerabilities and configuration issues rather than software-license composition.
The strongest clue is the requirement to identify libraries and their licensing status , which directly maps to SCA.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Application Security Testing # SCA # Third-Party Components # Open-Source Dependencies # SBOM # Licensing and Vulnerability Analysis.

NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following is the best reason to heavily segment business-critical assets from within the network?

A. Degraded functionality
B. Legacy systems
C. Proprietary server
D. Asset obfuscation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Legacy systems present a significant security problem because they frequently cannot support current operating systems, security agents, encryption mechanisms, authentication controls, or vendor patches. When a business-critical legacy system cannot be remediated normally, strong network segmentation becomes an important compensating control. The objective is to reduce the system's reachable attack surface and restrict which users, hosts, protocols, and applications can communicate with it.
A segmented legacy asset might be placed in a dedicated VLAN or security zone and protected through restrictive firewall access-control rules, jump hosts, allowlisting, enhanced logging, and continuous monitoring. Even though segmentation does not remove the underlying vulnerability, it decreases exposure and makes exploitation or lateral movement considerably more difficult.
Degraded functionality is generally an effect or remediation constraint rather than the strongest reason for isolation. Asset obfuscation does not provide reliable security because hidden systems can still be discovered through enumeration or traffic analysis. A proprietary server is not automatically vulnerable merely because its implementation is proprietary; it may still support modern patches and security controls.
CS0-004 specifically covers segmentation as a vulnerability-scanning consideration, compensating controls as a mitigation strategy, and legacy systems as an important inhibitor to remediation.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation # Compensating Controls # Segmentation # Legacy-System Constraints.

NEW QUESTION # 17
An incident response team identifies a malicious uniform resource locator (URL) associated with a required business process and performs the following activities:
- Access to the URL has been restricted only to the necessary users
through firewall rules and Cloud Security Group rules.
- Additional monitoring has been enabled for traffic related to that
site and the allowed users.
- All application servers that need to access that site have been
patched with the latest security and software updates.
- Application owners have been notified of the severity and need to
remediate this reported issue.
Which of the following best describes the overall mitigation the security team is performing?

A. Compensating controls
B. Configuration management
C. Attack surface management
D. Patching solutions

Answer: A

Explanation:
The malicious URL cannot be completely blocked because it supports a required business process, so the team is applying alternative safeguards-restricted access, monitoring, patching, and notifications-to reduce the risk.

NEW QUESTION # 18
A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Reset user credentials.
B. Establish a legal hold.
C. Establish a timeline.
D. Perform log correlation.
E. Restore files from backup.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A legal hold preserves potentially relevant files, logs, and other evidence from alteration or deletion before the investigation proceeds.

NEW QUESTION # 19
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is notified of an ongoing incident. Which of the following explains why the CISO instructs the Chief Executive Officer not to discuss the incident over email?

A. The security team discovered a vulnerability in the Short Message Service email gateway.
B. Emails are not encrypted in transit.
C. The email system may be compromised.
D. The CISO has not notified the public relations team of the incident.

Answer: C

Explanation:
During an active incident, attackers may be monitoring a compromised email system. Incident communications should therefore use a secure, out-of-band channel.

NEW QUESTION # 20
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