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| Certification Vendor: | CompTIA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam |
| Exam Number: | CAS-005 |
| Related Certifications: | CompTIA SecurityX (formerly CASP+) |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Exam Price: | $512 USD |
| Exam Duration: | 165 minutes |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Performance-based |
| Real Exam Qty: | Up to 90 |
| Passing Score: | Pass/Fail (no scaled score) |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Sample Questions: | CompTIA CAS-005 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online (via Pearson VUE) or In-person (at Pearson VUE testing centers) |
| Pre Condition: | Minimum of 10 years of general hands-on IT experience, including 5 years of broad hands-on IT security experience. Recommended knowledge of Network+, Security+, CySA+, Cloud+, and PenTest+ or equivalent. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.comptia.org/certifications/securityx |
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NEW QUESTION # 342
A malicious actor exploited firmware vulnerabilities and used rootkits in an attack on an organization. After the organization recovered from the incident, an engineer needs to recommend a solution that reduces the likelihood of the same type of attack in the future. Which of the following is the most relevant solution?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best solution to reduce the likelihood of firmware-level attacks and rootkits is to implement measured boot. Measured boot is a hardware-assisted security mechanism that leverages Trusted Platform Module (TPM) and Secure Boot processes. It records cryptographic measurements of each stage of the boot process-from firmware to operating system loaders-and stores them in the TPM. Security software, such as attestation services, can then verify that the system booted into a known, trusted state. If firmware or boot-level code has been tampered with, the measurements will not match expected values, alerting administrators to compromise.
Option A (software integrity checks) validates application-level integrity but does not address firmware rootkits that load before the operating system. Option B (self-encrypting drives) protects data at rest but does not prevent rootkits. Option D (host-based encryption) ensures confidentiality but does not detect or mitigate firmware-level persistence.
Measured boot specifically targets low-level tampering, making it the most relevant control to defend against rootkits and firmware exploits.
NEW QUESTION # 343
A web service provider has just taken on a very large contract that comes with requirements that are currently not being implemented. In order to meet contractual requirements, the company must achieve the following thresholds:
- 99.99% uptime
- Load time in 3 seconds
- Response time = <1.0 seconds
Starting with the computing environment, which of the following should a security engineer recommend to best meet the requirements? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
To meet the high uptime, load time, and response time requirements, the following recommendations would be most effective:
Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN can distribute content across multiple locations globally, reducing load times by serving content from the nearest edge server to the user.
Implementing server clusters: Server clusters can ensure high availability and load balancing, which is essential for maintaining 99.99% uptime and improving response times during high traffic periods.
Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Reducing storage I/O can improve performance by speeding up data access and enhancing the system's ability to meet load time and response time requirements.
These solutions directly address the performance and availability metrics that are required for the contract. Other options like implementing RAID, using redundant power for workstations, or installing firewalls would not directly contribute to the high availability or performance requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 344
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect
Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
* Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
* Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
* Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
* Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
* "Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research
NEW QUESTION # 345
An enterprise is deploying APIs that utilize a private key and a public key to ensure the connection string is protected. To connect to the API, customers must use the private key. Which of the following would best secure the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string?
Answer: A
Explanation:
HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code)ensures the integrity and authentication of API requests without exposing static or hard-coded private keys. It uses a secret key and a hash function, preventing replay attacks and tampering. VPNs secure the transport layer, MFA protects user accounts (not API-to-database communications), and DSA is a signature algorithm but does not address hard-coding risk directly.
Reference:CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005, Domain 3.0: Implement secure API practices including the use of HMAC for key protection.
NEW QUESTION # 346
An organization determines existing business continuity practices are inadequate to support critical internal process dependencies during a contingency event. A compliance analyst wants the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to identify the level of residual risk that is acceptable to guide remediation activities. Which of the following does the CIO need to clarify?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Understanding Residual Risk:
Residual risk is the amount of risk remaining after controls and mitigations have been applied.
Risk appetite defines the level of risk an organization is willing to accept before taking additional actions.
Why Option D is Correct:
The CIO must clarify the organization's "Risk Appetite" to determine how much residual risk is acceptable.
If risk exceeds the appetite, additional security measures need to be implemented.
This aligns with ISO 31000 and NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF).
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A (Mitigation): Mitigation refers to reducing risk, but it doesn't define the acceptable level of residual risk.
B (Impact): Impact assessment measures potential damage, but it does not determine what is acceptable.
C (Likelihood): Likelihood is the probability of risk occurring, but not what level is acceptable.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide: Risk Management & Business Continuity NIST SP 800-37: Risk Management Framework
NEW QUESTION # 347
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